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Exam Code: A2090-611
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: DB2 10.1 DBA for Linux, UNIX, and Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What unit of measurement is used to represent the cumulative total cost of a node in a Visual Explain
access plan diagram?
A. CPU cycles
B. Elapsed time, in milliseconds
C. Processing instructions performed
D. Timerons
Answer: D

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NO.2 A table named SALES was created as follows:
If management wants to use Label-Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect individual rows in the SALES
table, and the security policy needed (SEC_POLICY) has already been created, what must be done to
protect the table as desired?
A. Associate the SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
B. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table.
C. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the table.
D. Add a SECURED WITH clause to every column in the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command can be used to restore a corrupted database using only the recovery history file?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE DATABASE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the MAX_LOG database configuration parameter used for?
A. To limit how many log files a single transaction can span.
B. To limit the percentage of primary log space a running transaction can consume.
C. To limit the total number of primary and secondary log files a database can consume.
D. To limit the total number of secondary log files a transaction can consume before infinite logging is
enabled.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Due to a hardware failure, it appears that there may be some corruption in database DB_1 as DB2 is
reporting a "bad page". DB2DART is performed for the entire database and it appears that several bad
pages were detected in table space TBSP_1.
What command can be used to recover the database and repair the corruption in table space TBSP_1?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE TABLESPACE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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NO.6 If the current value for self-tuning memory is: Self Tuning Memory (SELF_TUNING_MEM) = ON
(Inactive) Which statement is true?
A. Self-tuning is occurring only on the instance memory area.
B. The memory tuner is actively tuning the memory on the system.
C. Self-tuning is not occurring because it is waiting for the database to be recycled.
D. Self-tuning is not occurring because there are less than two memory consumers enabled.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where are column mask definitions stored?
A. In the table definition
B. In the system catalog
C. In the table space metadata
D. In the database configuration file
Answer: B

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NO.8 The values of the automatic maintenance database configuration parameters for a database named
SAMPLE are as follows:
What commands must be run to enable real-time statistics collection on the SAMPLE database?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON; D.
UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING
AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON;
Answer: B

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NO.9 If a single node database is actively being used by applications when a power failure occurs, what
method is used to bring the database back to a consistent state once power has been restored.?
A. Crash recovery
B. Version recovery
C. Disaster recovery
D. Roll-forward recovery
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the correct procedure for recovering a dropped table when DROPPED TABLE RECOVERY has
been enabled and the database must remain online?
A. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the droppedtable.
B. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
appropriate table space and recover thedropped table.
C. Restore the database from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the
ROLLFORWARD DATABASE command withthe RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the dropped table.
D. Restore the appropriate table space from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped;
run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASEcommand with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore
the appropriate table space and recover the dropped table.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have an High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment set up and you want to read
from the standby database. What must you do?
A. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_ROS registry variable.
B. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_SNAP registry variable.
C. Execute the STOP HADR command to temporarily break the HADR connection to the standby.
D. Execute the TAKEOVER HADR command to instruct the standby database to takeover as the new
primary database.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are two types of security label components that can be used with Label-Based Access Control
(LBAC)? (Choose two).
A. Set
B. Tree
C. Group
D. Range
E. Hierarchy
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which command will define the alternate diagnostic data directory path as /db2data/db2dump2?
A. db2set ALT_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
B. db2set SECONDARY_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING ALT_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING SECONDARY_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement is correct when describing trusted contexts?
A. A trusted context defines a trust relationship for a connection between the database and an external
entity.
B. A trusted context promotes the authorization level of the connection initiator and grants them DBADM
authority.
C. A trusted context defines a trust relationship between a user and a table allowing that user additional
capabilities.
D. A trusted context gives the database connection the ability to bypass auditing since authentication has
already occurred.
Answer: A

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NO.15 In IBM Data Studio, where can you schedule script-based jobs?
A. Job Console
B. Job Manager
C. Task Manager
D. Utilities Console
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2150-575
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.10 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.12 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.18 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.19 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.20 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2040-638
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes & Domino Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Recipient indicators in Notes mail enhances productivity by providing users with what
information?
A. The indicate how many people have received an email.
B. The indicate whether the user is a direct recipient of email or justcopied.
C. The indicate whether an email contains an attachment.
D. They indicate whether a recipient has received an email.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many Notes and Notes and Domino applications are estimated to be in active use
today?
A. over 10 million
B. over 1 million
C. fewer than 100,000
D. over 700 million
Answer: A

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NO.3 When speaking with a customer who is still on older versions of Notes and Domino,
what is the best
reason for upgrading to Notes and Domino 8.5.?
A. Replication allows for advanced offline capabilities.
B. The Notes user interface still looks much like Notes Version 5, which appeals to older
workers.
C. Organizations can significantly reduce IT costs by upgrading to Domino 8.5.
D. The Domino server has been re-engineered to run on WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Briefly, what is IBM Social Business strategy?
A. Moving all corporate data to the cloud
B. Leveraging social capabilities in context to enable better business results
C. Discouraging employees from using Facebook and Twitter during work
D. Using IBM Watson technology to improve search algorithms
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the price of Lotus Symphony productivity suite
is true?
A. Users pay an entitlement fee of $300 to trade-in Microsoft Office for Lotus Symphony
B. Lotus Symphony is a free download for anyone to use
C. Only users of Notes 8.5 can use Lotus Symphony
D. Only users of Microsoft Office are allowed to replace Office with Lotus Symphony
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2060-017
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration SaaS Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the
cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your
customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

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NO.2 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers
and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as
which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced
managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a
customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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NO.4 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions
are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File
Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling
B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM
Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What IBM cloud based SaaS solution enables data to be converted from one EDI
format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2170-652
Exam Name: IBM (Curam Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Understanding how the tiers of government operate is critical to successful opportunity
identification
and prospecting since that understanding allows you to:
A.Align the payment schedules to the government schedules
B.Know which is the middle tier so as not to incorrectly promote them to the top and bottom
C.Know where to send the invoice whenCuramsolutions are sold
D.AlignCuramsolutions directly to the business of the jurisdiction
Answer: D

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NO.2 Curam is a fully integrated product suite.What types of social programs does Curam
support?
A.Social Security
B.Free milk program
C.The space program
D.None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a case?
A.It is used to manage interactions between the participant and the agency
B.A case is a category of intake questions
C.It is a key part ofCuram
D.A and C
Answer: C

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NO.4 Curam is an important component of IBM s Smarter Cities strategy by providing the
solutions for which
segment of the Smarter Cities framework:
A.Infrastructure
B.Planning and Management
C.Human
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Social Program Management Platform Value Proposition includes:
A.Enables a rapid, lower-risk implementation by leveraging pre-built and configurable social
services
elements and business processes
B.Empowers the business to define and deploy new programs through configuration tools in
a runtime
environment
C.Protects current investment and provides flexibility to address new and emerging service
delivery
trends
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2090-559
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Certified Developer - IBM Informix Genero v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which method does NOT belong to the os.path class?
A. size()
B. rename()
C. separator()
D. getProgramDir()
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the default template_id value used by the GAS xcf file?
A. "_default"
B. "defaultgwc"
C. "gwdefault.css"
D. "gwcomponents.css"
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which attribute should be set if you need to align fields on the form that are inside different
GROUP containers?
A. STYLE on the field widgets
B. JUSTIFY on the field widgets
C. STYLE on the group containers
D. GRIDCHILDRENINPARENT on the group containers
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Web Service Application is started with three pool elements in its configuration: START=2
MIN_AVAILABLE=2 MAX_AVAILABLE=4 If each process takes 10 seconds to run, and 5
incoming process requests are received in the course of 6 minutes, at most how many DVM's will
be started?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.5 If the server has IP 192.168.1.50 and the client has IP 192.168.1.100, and GDC is listening on
port
6400 on the client machine, which is the correct value for the FGLSERVER variable?
A. 192.168.1.50:0
B. 192.168.1.100:0
C. 192.168.1.50:6400
D. 192.168.1.100:6400
Answer: B

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NO.6 To modify the options that are visible when a user right-clicks on a program, which file must
be modified?
A. Form file
B. Program 4gl file
C. Action Default file
D. Presentation Style file
Answer: C

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NO.7 When using the Genero Application Server, what is the preferred method for implementing
load balancing (to increase capacity)?
A. The Genero Application Server is multi-threaded and handles load balancing automatically.
B. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on different servers, and use
thirdparty
tools to implement load balancing.
C. Deploy multiple instances of the Genero Application Server on a multi-CPU host. Configure
load balancing among these various instances
within the http.conf file.
D. Place the Web Server and the Genero Application Server dispatchers on one host, and the
VMProxies (and the DVMs they instantiate) on
separate hosts. Modify the http.conf file to specify the location of the hosts where the VMProxies
reside.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What URL would you enter to call the "myApp" application defined in group "demo" through
the "myWebServer" Web Server?
A. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/myApp
B. http://myWebServer/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
C. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/r/demo/myApp
D. http://myWebServer:6394/gas/wa/sua/demo/myApp
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is needed to provide the classes needed to create a Web Service ?
A. IMPORT os
B. IMPORT util
C. IMPORT xml
D. IMPORT com
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which product contains the Genero Report Viewer?
A. Genero Web Client
B. Genero Desktop Client
C. Genero Report Designer
D. Genero Dynamic Virtual Machine (DVM)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2040-911
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in
terms of portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the
drag-anddrop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js
and calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.2 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new WSRP 2.0
feature is enabled in WebSphere Portal V8.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without
wiring the producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.3 Robert needs to support a language that is read from left-to-right. Which tag would he use?
A. <portal-fmt:bidi/>
B. <portal-fmt:answer/>
C. <portal-fmt:textParam/>
D. <portal-fmt:identification/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each
other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The XYZ company has a custom portlet that provides access to data from the company
mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs a batchThe XYZ company has a custom portlet
that provides access to data from the company? mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs
a batch process to update the data. During the batch process, the portlet cannot access the data.
Which one of the following options allows you to hide the portlet during the batch processing
times?
A. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy, then use the Page Layout editor to
assign the policy to the portlet.
B. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy and to assign the policy to the portlet.
C. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule, then use the Page Layout editor
to assign the rule to the portlet.
D. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule and to assign the rule to the
portlet.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Bill is developing Ajax portlet, In the serveResource() method first he is setting "AdminName"
request attribute and then forwarding control to .jsp for generating markup, How can he print the
"AdminName" attribute inside JSP ?
A. <%= request.getAttribute("AdminName") %>
B. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=renderRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
C. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=resourceRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
D. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=portletRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following options is not a valid controller model interface?
A. com.ibm.portal.content.ContentModelController
B. com.ibm.portal.content.LayoutModelController
C. com.ibm.portal.content.NavigationModelController
D. com.ibm.portal.portlet.PortletModelController
Answer: C

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.8 Which variables are defined by the defineObjects tag when used on a JSP page included within
the render method?
A. portletRequest, portletResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences,
portletPreferencesValues
B. renderRequest, renderResponse, renderConfig, renderSession, renderPreferences
C. renderRequest, renderResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletSessionScope,
portletPreferences, portletPreferencesValues
D. request, response, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences
Answer: C

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NO.9 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop
a client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Client-side tracing and logging has been enabled for all components in the namespace
com.ibm.mashups.enabler. Where are the log statements written to?
A. The log file trace.log located by default under wp_profile_root/logs
B. The JavaScript console of the browser
C. The log file SystemOut.log located by default under wp_profile_root/logs
D. The debug popup window displayed by the browser
Answer: B

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