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Exam Code: HP2-K01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You installed new server blades into an HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure.
How does the enclosure indicate if a server blade is not installed correctly?
A. The HPBladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnect to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer has eight BL20p G3 servers all with Fibre Channel mezzanine cards. They also
have a GbE2 switch installed with a Brocade switch attached.
None of their servers can access external shared storage (MSA1500cs). What should you verify
first?
A. if the BL20p G3 has a 4Gb or fasterFibre Channel card
B. if the Brocade switch has an IP address assigned by DHCP
C. ifFibre Channel pass through is installed on the GbE2 switches
D. if Selective Storage Presentation (SSP) is enabled on the MSA1500cs
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which ProLiant Essentials Foundation Pack CD can run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)?
A. Diagnostic CD
B. SmartStart CD
C. Management CD
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your customer requires software that will help keep HP software and drivers installed on c-Class
blade servers up-to-date. They want a low-cost solution.
What should you recommend to this customer? (Select two)
A. HP Client Manager
B. HP Virtualization Software
C. Version Control Agent (VCA)
D. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
E. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack (VPM)
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 If you suspect the hard drive or hard drive subsystem may be at fault in a system, which HP tools
can isolate the source of the problem? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which online tool can be utilized to plan the power requirements for an HP Integrity BL860c
Blade?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP Knowledge Base
C. HPBladeSystem Sizer
D. HP Power Analysis & Planner
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP cooling technology uses power management to control CPU power state automatically
based on application demand?
A. Active Cool fans
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. Modular Cooling System
D. ProLiant Power Regulator
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which management functionality is provided by the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. manages shared power and cooling for the enclosure
B. provides management Ethernet fabric for the enclosure
C. provides HP SIM (System Insight Manager) functionality for Blade servers
D. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
E. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Your customer wants a solution that allows them to remotely deploy operating systems without
having to interact directly with each server blade or hiring additional IT staff.
Which product should they install to accomplish this goal?
A. HP Version Control Agent
B. HP Rapid Deployment Pack
C. HP Remote Deployment Utility
D. HP Vulnerability and Patch Management
E. HP Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which HP remote application continuously monitors hardware and sends an alert to HP when an
error occurs?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. Open Service Event Manager
C. Instant SupportEnterprise Edition
D. Integrated Management Log Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which GUI utility diagnoses system bottlenecks and is easily integrated with HP Systems Insight
Manager?
A. HP Control Tower for HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant Essentials Workload Management Pack
C. HPProLiant Essentials Performance Management Pack
D. HPProLiant Essentials Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.12 Some servers within a customer data center turn off because of overheating. You have an air
conditioning specification and want to compare this information with the amount of heat generated
by the servers.
Which HP tool provides this information?
A. Product Bulletin
B. Power Calculator
C. Data Center Sizer
D. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
Answer: B

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NO.13 How many BL30p servers can be supported by a fully populated 1U p-Class power enclosure?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer reports that an InfiniBand switch does not power on. What is a possible cause of this
problem?
A. Dynamic Power Saver is not activated on theInfiniBand switch.
B. A three-phase power system should be used withInfiniBand switches.
C. At least one server blade is not equipped with Host Channel Adapter (HCA) card.
D. The Onboard Administrator version firmware does not supportInfiniBand switches.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which processor types are offered on the BL460c? (Select two)
A. AMDOpteron Processor
B. Dual-Core Intel EM64T processor
C. Intel Itanium 2 Madison processor
D. Intel Itanium 2 Montecito processor
E. Quad-Core Intel EM64T processor
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 You are installing a new InifiniBand Mezzanine card into a customer's BL480c server blade. The
mezzanine card is installed into mezzanine slot 2.
Which interconnect location must the InifiniBand controller be installed into?
A. bays 3-4
B. bays 5-6
C. bays 7-8
D. Placement of the controller does not matter. The Onboard Administrator will properly map
theInifiniband mezzanine card to the installed Infiniband Interconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which utility allows you to easily install and provision one or many blade servers in an unattended,
automated fashion?
A. Virtual Install Disk
B. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of DIMMs that can be installed into an HP Integrity BL860c Server
Blade?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 16
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which HP StorageWorks arrays can be used with the HP BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. MSA 20
B. MSA 30
C. MSA 500
D. MSA 1000
E. MSA 1500cs
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 In which situation are qualified rack options covered by the HP BladeSystem c-Class Care Pack
services?
A. when the options are installed in the same rack
B. when the rack is fully populated with p-Class blades
C. when the options are used only with blade equipment
D. when the options are purchased with the c7000 enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.21 What happens if a server blade is moved from an enclosure managed by Virtual Connect to an
enclosure that is not managed by Virtual Connect?
A. MAC address and WWNs must be changed manually for the server blade.
B. Local MAC addresses are automatically returned to the original factory defaults.
C. After boot, server blades will gain access to the network as soon as the server and interconnect
modules are ready.
D. The configuration of the server blade is automatically updated before it is allowed to power on
and connect to the network.
Answer: B

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NO.22 You work with an enclosure equipped with ten fans and sixteen half-height servers. Two fans
failed.
In which slots must you insert the remaining fans to keep all sixteen servers working?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10
Answer: C

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NO.23 A customer wants to install five full-height blade servers into a c-Class enclosure that is running
N+N power supply redundancy mode.
How many power supplies are required to support this configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which c-Class BL series server blade supports 4 internal SAS drives?
A. BL460c
B. BL480c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.25 You added an interconnect switch in an HP BladeSystem c-Class and the switch does not power
up. What should you check? (Select three.)
A. interconnect type and location
B. position of the mezzanine cards
C. position of the power supplies in the enclosure
D. status of the first full-height server blade in the enclosure
E. enclosure and switch status in the Onboard Administrator
F. whether interconnect bay has been activated for the bay the switch is in
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.26 Which item is required to power on and troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. Diagnostic Station and adapter
B. Server Blade Management Module
C. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
D. You cannot power on and troubleshoot a p-Class blade that has been removed from its
enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.27 You are performing maintenance at a customer's site and they are booting an HP BladeSystem p-
Class server from a storage area network (SAN). You must configure the server with a virtual boot
device that enables the server to fetch boot-loading instructions from the SAN.
How is the virtual boot device presented to the host server?
A. as a Logical Unit Number (LUN) on the disk array
B. as a Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) NIC
C. as aFibre channel Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on the target server
D. as a Deployment Server database attached to the target server
Answer: A

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NO.28 You need to update Integrated Lights-Outs (iLO) card firmware, but you do not have physical
access to the server.
How can you accomplish this task?
A. useiLO web interface
B. use System Software Manager
C. use Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
D. use Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) software
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 2?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
C. Identify the possible solution for each possible root cause.
D. Determine and use the most appropriate tools for each situation.
Answer: A

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NO.30 During which portion of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you carefully observe and record
the results of each step including any error messages or changes in functionality?
A. Step 1 - Collect data
B. Step 3 - Develop the action plan
C. Step 4 - Execute the action plan
D. Step 6 - Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S28
Exam Name: HP (Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.3 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.5 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.6 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.10 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.11 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.12 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.15 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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NO.16 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.19 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: HP0-Y38
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are designing a customer's wireless network. What information is important for you to provide to
RF Planner during the initial phase of design? (Select three.)
A. cross floor coverage
B. wall/ceiling placement of access points
C. building material database
D. the plan for 802.11n coverage as well as 802.11a/b/g coverage
E. ceiling interference database
F. interference modeling of GSM and CDMA networks
G. capacity plan
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is deploying 25 A-WA2620E access points (APs) on each floor of a building that has three
floors. Each floor has an A-WX5002 access controller (AC). You are deploying the first AP. The exhibit
shows the CLI commands you have entered on the AC for bringing up a new AP with serial number 200.
After approximately 30 seconds, the AP has not yet come online.
What is a possible cause of this delay?
A. The CLI service template commands are incorrect.
B. LWAPP is not installed.
C. The AP is updating its software configuration.
D. The ESS interface is not fully defined.
E. The AP information is incorrect.
F. The radio configuration assigned the wrong 802.11n channel parameters.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A national real estate agency wants to deploy a wireless network for their employees in their small local
branch offices. The primary applications that will be used on the network include the transfer of
promotional material, which has a high amount of image and graphical data, and online meetings and
webcasts. The agency data has been growing so much that they recently upgraded their broadband
connection from a T3 to an OC-3 and the IT manager is worried that this is not sufficient. The IT manager
is not on site very often and stressed the importance of reliability by saying, "Time is money and quick
network access is very important.?
You visit one of the largest branch locations and discover that it consists of twelve 10x8 ft open cubicles.
You also discover several sources of interference while conducting a preliminary site survey. The
customer's standard security system operates in the 2.4GHz band, one neighboring outdoor 802.11a
WLAN, eight neighboring 802.11g deployments, and several users of Bluetooth headsets.
Which configuration should you recommend?
A. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
B. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
C. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
D. two access points set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 1 band
E. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer wants to extend a network between offices without installing underground lines or
extending overhead lines. Your solution for this customer will include Dynamic MESH. Which primary
factors should you consider for this wireless network? (Select two.)
A. distances between two points
B. type of network traffic the local mesh will handle
C. high-availability requirements
D. what channels the access point needs to use
E. length of cable needed to connect the antenna
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which type of packet does IACTP use to set up the data tunnel when the client is roaming between the
HA and the FA?
A. TCP
B. IAPP
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
E. UDP
F. IPSec
Answer: E

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Exam Code: HP0-M38
Exam Name: HP (Managing HP Storage Essentials (SRM) 6.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Using Storage Essentials, you discover a customer's SAN switches, storage arrays, tape and libraries.
What must you do next to implement Backup Manager?
A. Install the corresponding SMI-S provider on the backup server.
B. Discover hosts.
C. Discover applications.
D. Install the corresponding CIM extension on the backup manager hosts.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tool can you use to verify SNIA libraries on a server?
A. HP SMH
B. Server System Requirements wizard
C. CIM Extension Installer
D. hbatest
Answer: D

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NO.3 What must you do if a managed EVA becomes managed by the passive CommandView EVA server?
A. Run a Get Details
B. Run Update Element Data
C. Manage CIM Extensions
D. Enable Troubleshooting Mode
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which parameter should be specified in the cim.extensions.parameters file to enable the CIM extension
to listen on a specific network card?
A. -port
B. -on
C. -mgmtServerIP
D. -nic
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do you use to calculate File System Viewer licenses?
A. host MAPS
B. NAS capacity (RAW) in managed TB
C. total array capacity in managed TB
D. scanned space (file sizes) in TB
E. managed host files system (volume) in TB
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J41
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.9 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.10 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D12
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which benefit is provided by Insight Control for Linux 6?
A. Virtual Media support on iLO-based servers without PXE and DHCP
B. scaling enhancements for enterprise data center operation with more than 5,000 physical nodes
C. deployment support for a Windows-based ProLiant central management server (CMS)
D. virtual machine management support on community-supported Linux distributions, including Debian
and Ubuntu
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
The component technologies of which aspect of the HP Converged Infrastructure are illustrated in the
exhibit?
A. Infrastructure Operating Environment
B. FlexFabric
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. virtual resource pools
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding virtual machine management with Insight Control?
A. Physical and virtual servers can be moved using a GUI-initiated drag and drop or a CLI.
B. Integration with HP SIM enables you to move virtual machines based on predictive hardware alerts.
C. A separate license is required to manage performance of Integrity virtual machines.
D. Virtual machines can be load balanced across a cluster automatically.
Answer: D

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NO.4 With Insight Control, you can generate a report that enables you to determine the overall
performance status of a system. Which three values should you reference on this report for this
information? (Select three.)
A. Accessible Duration of Server
B. Average CPU Utilization
C. Inaccessible Duration of Server
D. %Major
E. %Minor
F. %Normal
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding Insight Control virtual machine management? (Select two.)
A. It disables use of drag-and-drop functionality to relocate virtual machines.
B. Virtual machines can be purchased and delivered as "chunks" of capacity.
C. It proactively relocates virtual machines before hardware failures occur.
D. It enables the safe and orderly shutdown of VMware ESX hosts.
E. It includes expanded support for virtual storage replication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What does the Matrix Starter Kit include that the Matrix Expansion Kit does not.?
A. BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with fully redundant power supplies, fans, and Onboard
Administrator
B. HP 10000 G2 series rack (and rack and power options)
C. redundant Virtual Connect Flex-10 Ethernet and 8Gb Fibre Channel interconnects
D. Insight Dynamics, Insight Control, and VCEM
Answer: B

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NO.7 At what point would a customer environment need to be split into two separate HP SIM managed
groups with two central management servers?
A. 50 physical servers
B. 50 virtual machines
C. 1,000 managed components including iLOs
D. 5,000 physical servers and virtual machines
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which functionality is provided by Insight Control server migration?
A. It supports migrations to third-party x86 servers running a supported operating system.
B. It uses a Migration Wizard to upgrade to an Integrity or ProLiant server blade target.
C. It automates migration from legacy servers to virtual servers.
D. It manages the process of deploying a server from bare metal.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which tools are included on the Insight Foundation Management DVD? (Select two.)
A. Firmware Maintenance
B. ProLiant Support Packs
C. SmartStart
D. Systems Insight Manager
E. System Management Homepage
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 How is Insight Control licensed for ProLiant servers?
A. per core
B. per server
C. per migration
D. per virtual machine host
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your customer is not fully ready for BladeSystem Matrix, but is interested in unified management of
their physical and virtual environments. Which products should you recommend for this customer instead
of Matrix?
A. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
B. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Manager
D. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Machine Management
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which links within the Server Management area under the HP Insight Software tab in VMware vCenter
enable you to launch HP interfaces in new browsers? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Insight Dynamics for ProLiant
C. Insight Control
D. Integrated Lights-Out
E. Baseboard Management Controller
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Your customer is concerned about power service interruptions but is unable to invest in the power
infrastructure at this time. Which questions should you ask your customer to consider? (Select two.)
A. How can load be reduced?
B. How can capacity be reclaimed?
C. How can failover clusters be implemented?
D. How can peak workloads be balanced more effectively?
E. How can redundancy be extended throughout the data center?
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Provisioning a new application infrastructure can often take weeks or months to complete. What is one
typical reason that the process can become so complicated?
A. Complying with government regulations causes lengthy delays.
B. Built-to-order servers, storage, and networking devices require long lead times.
C. Ordering the necessary components requires complex paperwork.
D. Lack of standardization hinders automation and governance.
Answer: D

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NO.15 With Insight Control server deployment, by default, which identifiers are included by default as part
of the displayed name for a newly discovered server blade? (Select three.)
A. bay number
B. enclosure name
C. Onboard Administrator name
D. server asset tag
E. rack name
F. server serial number
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 What are two advantages of installing HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter Server? (Select two.)
A. provides an in-context launch of HP SIM
B. the ability to reboot host servers in different clusters
C. additional tabs for Insight Control and Insight Dynamics information related to VMware vCenter
D. access to view health and status information from iLOs and the Onboard Administrator
E. direct links to open Capacity Advisor reports
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which statement is true about the server migration functionality of Insight Control?
A. Virtual machines for V2P migrations must reside on a VMware host.
B. Virtual machines for V2V migrations require a separate license per virtual machine.
C. Source and target servers can be Integrity or ProLiant servers or virtual machines.
D. Physical server migration requires a Windows iSCSI Initiator.
Answer: D

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NO.18 DRAG DROP.
Click the Task button. Match the product package with the term that describes its position within the
modular HP Insight software portfolio.
Answer:

NO.19 How is Insight Control power management different from power management applications available
from major HP competitors?
A. It does not require p-state-capable hardware.
B. It supports legacy versions of HP-UX.
C. It displays monetary power management savings.
D. It enables you to power servers on and off remotely.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Industry analysts report that businesses are scaling back the research and development efforts that
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A. aversion to risks while marketing new technology
B. cost of lost time, effort, and opportunity
C. lack of trained personnel
D. unpredictable business cycles
E. limited access to capital investors
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M41
Exam Name: HP (HP Universal CMDB 9.x. Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are the main components of the Data Flow Management architecture? (Select three.)
A. IP range
B. servers
C. discovery adapters
D. domain and credentials
E. database
F. data flow probe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.2 What are best practices for a UCMDB High Availability deployment? (Select three.)
A. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster, but customer components are only active on the
active server.
B. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster and customer components are active on all the
servers.
C. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by session.
D. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by IP.
E. The session keepalive address string contains a ClusterId parameter.
F. The session keepalive address string contains a ServerId parameter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What does the IT Universe model represent?
A. the structure of all CI Types and their relationships
B. the sets of views defined in the CMDB environment
C. the structure of all CIs and CI Types
D. the data of all CIs and CI Types in the CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the roles of CMDB database schemas? (Select two.)
A. to store only the system-wide and management-related metadata for the UCMDB environment
B. to store configuration information that is gathered from the various CMDBs and from the UCMDB
application
C. to store CI changes over a time range
D. to store saved snapshots of the views
E. to store the information that is gathered from third-party applications and tools
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What are the supported operating systems for the UCMDB application? (Select three.)
A. Sun SPARC Solaris 10
B. Windows 2003 Enterprise (64 bit)
C. Windows 2008 Enterprise (64 bit)
D. SUSE Linux 11 Enterprise (64 bit)
E. Windows 2000, 2003/2008 (32 bit)
F. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise/Advanced (64 bit)
Answer: B,C,F

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Exam Code: HP0-Y29
Exam Name: HP (Installing an HP Networking IP Telephony Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? This method uses an ordered list of
agents for the group. When a call rings into the ACD group it is routed to the next agent on the list
following the agent whom last answered a call for the ACD group. If that agent does not answer the call
after a preset amount of time the call will be routed to the next agent on the list.
The call will continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total
timeout is reached.Then the call will be sent to the call coverage for the ACD group.
A. Linear
B. Circular
C. Calling Group
D. Least Call Count
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? The call is routed first to the agent
whom has answered fewer ACD calls than any other agent. If that agent does not answer after a preset
amount of time the call will be routed to the agent in that group with the next-lowest call count. The callwill
continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is
reached.
A. Linear
B. Calling Group
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? When a call rings into the ACD group
it rings all members of the group simultaneously. The call will continue to ring all members
until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is reached.
A. Calling Group
B. Most Idle Agent
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Linear
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statements are true about the "Export Data" capability on VCX.? (Select two.)
A. Exported data may be viewed on the Central Management Console.
B. The call processor service must be stopped before exporting data.
C. It is only possible to export data from one data table at a time.
D. Data may be exported to a file.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have provisioned MAC address data for a phone as shown in the exhibit. What happens when the
phone powers up?
A. The phone prompts for a password without prompting for a phone number. If the correct
password for phone number 1102 is entered, the phone registers as phone number 1102.
B. The phone prompts for a phone number. If 1102 is input, the phone completes registration without
prompting for a password. If any other phone number is input, the phone prompts for a password.
C. The phone does not prompt for a phone number or password, but registers automatically with phone
number 1102.
D. The phone is not allowed to register because it is not locked.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP (HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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