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Exam Code: HP0-P16
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Design of HP 9000/HP Integrity Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the components of a cell board in an Integrity mid-range server?
A.up to four hard drives
B.up to 64 memory DIMMs
C.up to two PCI I/O card cages
D.up to four multi-core processor chips
Correct:D

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NO.2 What is the primary advantage of using roadmaps when discussing HP solutions with your
customers? (Select two.)
A.Roadmaps show information about product reliability.
B.Roadmaps provide information about technical product specifications.
C.Roadmaps show the customer which direction HP is going.
D.Roadmaps create a shared understanding of the future of the business.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A.HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B.HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C.HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D.HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E.HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Correct:A C

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NO.4 Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing
(OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware
platform?
A.a data warehouse
B.a bank with automatic teller machines
C.an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D.a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Correct:B

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NO.5 How many logical processors are provided in an HP Integrity rx6600 server that has four
dual-core Itanium 2 processors with HyperThreading enabled?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which feature allows an HP Integrity platform with HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) to
remain operational if a processor chip fails?
A.iCAP
B.OLAR
C.hot plug processors
D.dynamic processor deallocation
Correct:D

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NO.7 Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over a Gigabit Ethernet LAN
to save their data to a library. Which technology will improve performance?
A.NIC bonding
B.NIC teaming
C.Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D.Advanced Technology Attachment
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM
POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A.IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B.HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C.HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D.A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E.HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Correct:D E

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NO.9 Your customer wants to upgrade their IT environment. What must you do when gathering
information about the customer's existing infrastructure?
A.Identify existing contracts and validate them with the contract administration group.
B.Identify the existing management and administration model and validate the customer's market position.
C.Identify the existing server and storage environment for hardware revision levels and update to the
latest version.
D.Identify the existing server, storage, application, management, administration, contracts, system, and
site diagrams.
Correct:D

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NO.10 What new feature is enabled by the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.PCI-X 1.0
B.SDRAM
C.chip spare
D.PCI Express
Correct:D

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NO.11 What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium-based systems?
A.chipsets
B.full redundancy
C.faster clock speeds
D.memory expandability
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which new features are available on the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset? (Select
two.)
A.SDRAM
B.chip spare
C.double chip spare
D.up to 512GB main memory
E.up to 768GB main memory
Correct:C E

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NO.13 By what factor is the I/O bandwidth of the zx2 chipset increased compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.1.0
B.1.2
C.2.0
D.2.5
Correct:C

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NO.14 When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server
for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A.TPC-B
B.number of CPUs
C.delta performance
D.estimated performance
Correct:D

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NO.15 When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should
you discuss? (Select two.)
A.HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B.Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C.PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D.The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E.Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Correct:A B

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NO.16 Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity
servers against other vendors for Linux. Which competitive concept should be included in your
document?
A.HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D.HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Correct:C

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NO.17 HP offers Advanced Memory Protection in the zx2 and sx2000 based servers. Which option
enables this benefit?
A.Double-chip sparing
B.DDR2 memory
C.Scalable Memory Extenders
D.Memory scrubbers
Correct:A

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NO.18 A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him
that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor
(ISV) support. Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A.More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is growing.
B.HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without performance
loss.
C.The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be included in
the customer's business plans.
D.Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors, they cover
every needed type of application.
Correct:A C

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NO.19 What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A.HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B.IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C.HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D.IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Correct:D

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NO.20 What is an advantage of Itanium-based processors over PA-RISC-based processors?
A.They provide higher reliability and availability.
B.They provide mission-critical application support.
C.They support different operating systems and applications.
D.They provide more than 4GB available memory per application.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y11
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.4 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.13 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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NO.15 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.19 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-771
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following steps should the administrator perform after installing Command View
ESL? (Choose two).
A.Configure host access to the library.
B.Configure SCSI IDs for each tape drive.
C.Configure encryption settings for the library.
D.Configure identification properties for each library.
E.Configure compression settings for each tape drive.
Correct:A D

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NO.2 The administrator is unable to verify who has an open session with Command View ESL. The
administrator needs to access the library to update the firmware. Which two actions should the
administrator take in order to upgrade the firmware? (Choose two).
A.Power cycle the library.
B.Run the CLI via a serial cable.
C.Run the CLI via telnet.
D.Power cycle the backup server.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 A customer finds that backup jobs are unsuccessful. The backup software is able to detect the
library and its tape drives. The customer stops all backup jobs and decides to update the firmware
for the MSL6060 library using Library and Tape Tools but, Library and Tape Tools is unable to start
the firmware upgrade. Which should be performed?
A.Download the latest patches for the backup software.
B.Install Library and Tape Tools on a workstation instead.
C.Verify that the Fibre Channel Interface Controller detects the library.
D.Stop the backup application services or daemons on the backup server.
Correct:D

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NO.4 What two levels of library access does the advanced mode of Secure Manager allow? (Choose
two.)
A.drive
B.zone
C.library
D.backup
Correct:A C

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NO.5 A customer is using a MSL6060 library with four tape drives. The library is directly attached to a
server via SCSI HBAs. The library currently has no cards in the cPCI slots. The customer wishes
to share the tape library in a SAN environment. Which two hardware changes to the library will be
needed, assuming that all other components in the SAN already exist? (Choose two.)
A.The customer should connect a Fibre cable from the existing Library Controller board into a Fibre
Channel switch.
B.The customer should remove the existing Library Controller board and replace it with a Fibre Channel
Library Controller board.
C.The customer should add a Network Storage Router M2402 to the SAN and connect the tape drives to
the router.
D.The customer should add two e1200-160 Interface Controllers to the cPCI slots and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controllers.
E.The customer should add one e2400-160 Interface Controller into a cPCI slot and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controller.
Correct:C D

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Exam Code: HP0-144
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.2 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.11 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.14 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.17 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.20 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y21
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Core Competencies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 79 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.3 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.5 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.7 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.13 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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NO.17 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.18 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.22 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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NO.23 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

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NO.24 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.25 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.26 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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NO.28 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.29 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: HP0-J14
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A. real mode
B. user mode
C. kernel mode
D. secured mode
Answer: C

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NO.2 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

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NO.4 You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U
of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A. HP StorageWorks MSA60
B. HP StorageWorks MSA70
C. HP StorageWorks MSA500
D. HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M24
Exam Name: HP (HP Operations Manager Software v8 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 As an OM for Windows administrator, you are developing a policy that will create specialized
messages for each entry in a log file. You are NOT sure if you already covered all possible entries
(events). How can you as an administrator collect 'unmatched events' so that you are able to
analyze these and enhance your policy withoutdisturbing the operator's daily work? (Select two.)
A.Use the 'Log local events that don't match any rule' feature.
B.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the active Message browser' feature.
C.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the management server log file' feature.
D.Use the 'unmatched events are sent to the acknowledged Message browser' feature.
Correct:A D

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding policy groups? (Select two.)
A.A policy group can contain other policy groups.
B.A policy group can contain policies of different policy types.
C.A policy group always contains the latest version of a policy.
D.A policy group can only contain policies of the same platform.
E.A policy group can contain different versions of the same policy.
Correct:A B

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NO.3 Which communication technology is used by policy management to deploy policies to a DCE
agent on Windows?
A.WMI
B.RPC
C.SNMP
D.DCOM
Correct:B

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NO.4 What happens if you have placed version 1.0 of a policy in Policy Management->Polices
Groups->MyWebServers and then create version 1.1 of the same policy below Policy
Management->Polices Grouped by Type?
A.Version 1.0 and version 1.1 of the policy are now in the policy group.
B.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is automatically updated to version 1.1.
C.Version 1.0 of the policy in the policy group is NOT automatically updated to version 1.1.
D.Version 1.1 of the policy CANNOT be created because version 1.0 is already in a policy group.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which type of policy allows only one deployed policy per node?
A.Nodeinfo
B.SNMP Interceptor
C.Service Discovery
D.Open Message Interface
E.Flexible Management
Correct:E

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NO.6 You want to monitor the free disk space on a managed node. You want to get a critical message
the first time the free space is below 20%. If the disk free space stays below 20%, you want to get
warning messages. What is the easiest way to achieve this?
A.Use Scripting and store if the rule matched the first time or not in a SESSION variable.
B.Use the start action to create the critical message and the continue action to create the warning
message.
C.There is no special configuration necessary. If a threshold is violated multiple times, then warning
messages will be created automatically after
D.
E.Specify two threshold rules (using 20% both times). In the first rule, select 'first time only' and create the
critical message. In the second rule,
F.
Correct:B

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NO.7 What can you use to configure outages? (Select two.)
A.an outage server policy type
B.the node menu in the console for unplanned outagesthe node? menu in the console for unplanned
outages
C.the service's menu in the console for scheduled outages
D.the command line tool ovowserviceutil for unplanned outages
E.the ovpolicy tool to disable the policies for the nodes in outage
Correct:B D

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of deployment jobs that are active for the same node?
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.12
Correct:A

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NO.9 You manually installed the agent software on a Windows node. When you look at the package
inventory on the server, this shows an empty list. What do you have to doto be able to see the
actual complete package inventory?
A.Execute 'Redeploy all'.
B.Execute 'opcsw -installed'.
C.Execute 'Synchronize packages' from the node pop-up menu.
D.Deploy a policy. This implicitly synchronizes the complete package inventory.
Correct:C

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NO.10 You have 30 rules in one policy. How can you set the same message key in the outgoing
messages for all the rules that have already been created? (Select two.)
A.Change the message key field in each of the 30 rules separately.
B.Select all 30 rules. Choose 'Modify' and 'outgoing message' and overwrite the message key field.
C.Choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the message key field. This overwrites the current
message key of each rule.
D.If the message key was NOT already set, choose 'Message defaults'. Enter a message key in the
message key field. This will be applied for all
E.
Correct:A D

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