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Exam Code: HP0-M38
Exam Name: HP (Managing HP Storage Essentials (SRM) 6.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Using Storage Essentials, you discover a customer's SAN switches, storage arrays, tape and libraries.
What must you do next to implement Backup Manager?
A. Install the corresponding SMI-S provider on the backup server.
B. Discover hosts.
C. Discover applications.
D. Install the corresponding CIM extension on the backup manager hosts.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tool can you use to verify SNIA libraries on a server?
A. HP SMH
B. Server System Requirements wizard
C. CIM Extension Installer
D. hbatest
Answer: D

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NO.3 What must you do if a managed EVA becomes managed by the passive CommandView EVA server?
A. Run a Get Details
B. Run Update Element Data
C. Manage CIM Extensions
D. Enable Troubleshooting Mode
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which parameter should be specified in the cim.extensions.parameters file to enable the CIM extension
to listen on a specific network card?
A. -port
B. -on
C. -mgmtServerIP
D. -nic
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do you use to calculate File System Viewer licenses?
A. host MAPS
B. NAS capacity (RAW) in managed TB
C. total array capacity in managed TB
D. scanned space (file sizes) in TB
E. managed host files system (volume) in TB
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J41
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.9 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.10 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D12
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which benefit is provided by Insight Control for Linux 6?
A. Virtual Media support on iLO-based servers without PXE and DHCP
B. scaling enhancements for enterprise data center operation with more than 5,000 physical nodes
C. deployment support for a Windows-based ProLiant central management server (CMS)
D. virtual machine management support on community-supported Linux distributions, including Debian
and Ubuntu
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
The component technologies of which aspect of the HP Converged Infrastructure are illustrated in the
exhibit?
A. Infrastructure Operating Environment
B. FlexFabric
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. virtual resource pools
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding virtual machine management with Insight Control?
A. Physical and virtual servers can be moved using a GUI-initiated drag and drop or a CLI.
B. Integration with HP SIM enables you to move virtual machines based on predictive hardware alerts.
C. A separate license is required to manage performance of Integrity virtual machines.
D. Virtual machines can be load balanced across a cluster automatically.
Answer: D

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NO.4 With Insight Control, you can generate a report that enables you to determine the overall
performance status of a system. Which three values should you reference on this report for this
information? (Select three.)
A. Accessible Duration of Server
B. Average CPU Utilization
C. Inaccessible Duration of Server
D. %Major
E. %Minor
F. %Normal
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding Insight Control virtual machine management? (Select two.)
A. It disables use of drag-and-drop functionality to relocate virtual machines.
B. Virtual machines can be purchased and delivered as "chunks" of capacity.
C. It proactively relocates virtual machines before hardware failures occur.
D. It enables the safe and orderly shutdown of VMware ESX hosts.
E. It includes expanded support for virtual storage replication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What does the Matrix Starter Kit include that the Matrix Expansion Kit does not.?
A. BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with fully redundant power supplies, fans, and Onboard
Administrator
B. HP 10000 G2 series rack (and rack and power options)
C. redundant Virtual Connect Flex-10 Ethernet and 8Gb Fibre Channel interconnects
D. Insight Dynamics, Insight Control, and VCEM
Answer: B

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NO.7 At what point would a customer environment need to be split into two separate HP SIM managed
groups with two central management servers?
A. 50 physical servers
B. 50 virtual machines
C. 1,000 managed components including iLOs
D. 5,000 physical servers and virtual machines
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which functionality is provided by Insight Control server migration?
A. It supports migrations to third-party x86 servers running a supported operating system.
B. It uses a Migration Wizard to upgrade to an Integrity or ProLiant server blade target.
C. It automates migration from legacy servers to virtual servers.
D. It manages the process of deploying a server from bare metal.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which tools are included on the Insight Foundation Management DVD? (Select two.)
A. Firmware Maintenance
B. ProLiant Support Packs
C. SmartStart
D. Systems Insight Manager
E. System Management Homepage
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 How is Insight Control licensed for ProLiant servers?
A. per core
B. per server
C. per migration
D. per virtual machine host
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your customer is not fully ready for BladeSystem Matrix, but is interested in unified management of
their physical and virtual environments. Which products should you recommend for this customer instead
of Matrix?
A. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
B. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Manager
D. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Machine Management
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which links within the Server Management area under the HP Insight Software tab in VMware vCenter
enable you to launch HP interfaces in new browsers? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Insight Dynamics for ProLiant
C. Insight Control
D. Integrated Lights-Out
E. Baseboard Management Controller
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Your customer is concerned about power service interruptions but is unable to invest in the power
infrastructure at this time. Which questions should you ask your customer to consider? (Select two.)
A. How can load be reduced?
B. How can capacity be reclaimed?
C. How can failover clusters be implemented?
D. How can peak workloads be balanced more effectively?
E. How can redundancy be extended throughout the data center?
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Provisioning a new application infrastructure can often take weeks or months to complete. What is one
typical reason that the process can become so complicated?
A. Complying with government regulations causes lengthy delays.
B. Built-to-order servers, storage, and networking devices require long lead times.
C. Ordering the necessary components requires complex paperwork.
D. Lack of standardization hinders automation and governance.
Answer: D

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NO.15 With Insight Control server deployment, by default, which identifiers are included by default as part
of the displayed name for a newly discovered server blade? (Select three.)
A. bay number
B. enclosure name
C. Onboard Administrator name
D. server asset tag
E. rack name
F. server serial number
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 What are two advantages of installing HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter Server? (Select two.)
A. provides an in-context launch of HP SIM
B. the ability to reboot host servers in different clusters
C. additional tabs for Insight Control and Insight Dynamics information related to VMware vCenter
D. access to view health and status information from iLOs and the Onboard Administrator
E. direct links to open Capacity Advisor reports
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which statement is true about the server migration functionality of Insight Control?
A. Virtual machines for V2P migrations must reside on a VMware host.
B. Virtual machines for V2V migrations require a separate license per virtual machine.
C. Source and target servers can be Integrity or ProLiant servers or virtual machines.
D. Physical server migration requires a Windows iSCSI Initiator.
Answer: D

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NO.18 DRAG DROP.
Click the Task button. Match the product package with the term that describes its position within the
modular HP Insight software portfolio.
Answer:

NO.19 How is Insight Control power management different from power management applications available
from major HP competitors?
A. It does not require p-state-capable hardware.
B. It supports legacy versions of HP-UX.
C. It displays monetary power management savings.
D. It enables you to power servers on and off remotely.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Industry analysts report that businesses are scaling back the research and development efforts that
lead to innovation. What are two reasons cited as the cause of this trend? (Select two.)
A. aversion to risks while marketing new technology
B. cost of lost time, effort, and opportunity
C. lack of trained personnel
D. unpredictable business cycles
E. limited access to capital investors
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M41
Exam Name: HP (HP Universal CMDB 9.x. Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are the main components of the Data Flow Management architecture? (Select three.)
A. IP range
B. servers
C. discovery adapters
D. domain and credentials
E. database
F. data flow probe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.2 What are best practices for a UCMDB High Availability deployment? (Select three.)
A. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster, but customer components are only active on the
active server.
B. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster and customer components are active on all the
servers.
C. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by session.
D. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by IP.
E. The session keepalive address string contains a ClusterId parameter.
F. The session keepalive address string contains a ServerId parameter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What does the IT Universe model represent?
A. the structure of all CI Types and their relationships
B. the sets of views defined in the CMDB environment
C. the structure of all CIs and CI Types
D. the data of all CIs and CI Types in the CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the roles of CMDB database schemas? (Select two.)
A. to store only the system-wide and management-related metadata for the UCMDB environment
B. to store configuration information that is gathered from the various CMDBs and from the UCMDB
application
C. to store CI changes over a time range
D. to store saved snapshots of the views
E. to store the information that is gathered from third-party applications and tools
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What are the supported operating systems for the UCMDB application? (Select three.)
A. Sun SPARC Solaris 10
B. Windows 2003 Enterprise (64 bit)
C. Windows 2008 Enterprise (64 bit)
D. SUSE Linux 11 Enterprise (64 bit)
E. Windows 2000, 2003/2008 (32 bit)
F. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise/Advanced (64 bit)
Answer: B,C,F

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Exam Code: HP0-Y29
Exam Name: HP (Installing an HP Networking IP Telephony Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? This method uses an ordered list of
agents for the group. When a call rings into the ACD group it is routed to the next agent on the list
following the agent whom last answered a call for the ACD group. If that agent does not answer the call
after a preset amount of time the call will be routed to the next agent on the list.
The call will continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total
timeout is reached.Then the call will be sent to the call coverage for the ACD group.
A. Linear
B. Circular
C. Calling Group
D. Least Call Count
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? The call is routed first to the agent
whom has answered fewer ACD calls than any other agent. If that agent does not answer after a preset
amount of time the call will be routed to the agent in that group with the next-lowest call count. The callwill
continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is
reached.
A. Linear
B. Calling Group
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? When a call rings into the ACD group
it rings all members of the group simultaneously. The call will continue to ring all members
until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is reached.
A. Calling Group
B. Most Idle Agent
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Linear
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statements are true about the "Export Data" capability on VCX.? (Select two.)
A. Exported data may be viewed on the Central Management Console.
B. The call processor service must be stopped before exporting data.
C. It is only possible to export data from one data table at a time.
D. Data may be exported to a file.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have provisioned MAC address data for a phone as shown in the exhibit. What happens when the
phone powers up?
A. The phone prompts for a password without prompting for a phone number. If the correct
password for phone number 1102 is entered, the phone registers as phone number 1102.
B. The phone prompts for a phone number. If 1102 is input, the phone completes registration without
prompting for a password. If any other phone number is input, the phone prompts for a password.
C. The phone does not prompt for a phone number or password, but registers automatically with phone
number 1102.
D. The phone is not allowed to register because it is not locked.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP (HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the All-in-One form factor of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. It is physically smaller than the chassis for the HP rp3000 POS System and HP rp5700 POS System
B. Its multiple expansion slots allow for greater expandability.
C. It requires only one power cord to turn on the entire unit including integrated peripherals.
D. It includes an integrated monitor and integrated POS keyboard.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer calls and says that the red power LED of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System is blinking nine
times. What does this indicate?
A. The system power is on, but the computer will not boot.
B. Processor thermal protection has been activated
C. A pre-video memory error has occurred.
D. USB ports have failed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer asks where the COM ports are on the HP ap5000 AiO POS System. They are not clearly
visible. Where are they located?
A. behind the cover on the rear panel of the unit
B. on the bottom of the unit, under the pedestal
C. along the side of the resistive touchscreen
D. on the side of the monitor, behind the resistive touchscreen
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to use a powered USB port but does not know how to locate it. Which statement is
true about the location and appearance of powered USB ports?
A. They are located on the rear I/O panel next to the AC power connector and are aligned vertically to
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
B. They are located on the rear I/O panel, are specially color coded, and have larger dual connectors that
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
C. They are located on the front panel under the power button and above the hard drive and power status
LEDs.
D. The ap5000 does not support powered USB ports.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The optional 26.4-cm (104-inch) Customer Facing Display (CFD) is a replacement for which component
of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. resistive touchscreen
B. non-electronic advertisement panel
C. 2-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display-VFD)
D. Multitrack Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer complains that his touchscreen reads erratically and does not respond to a light touch. What
is a simple solution that might solve the problem?
A. Check the cable connection between the touchscreen and the system.
B. Clean the surface of the touchscreen and recalibrate it.
C. Gently shake the touchscreen to recalibrate the touch receptors.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which operating systems include McAfee Total Protection software in the preinstalled image for the HP
ap5000 AiO POS System.? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 7 Professional
B. FreeDOS
C. Windows XP Professional downgrade
D. POSReady 2009
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 After initial setup of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System, a customer reports that the touchscreen monitor
is not responding to touch. What should you tell the customer to do?
A. Make sure the monitor power cable is connected to AC power.
B. Make sure the touchscreen drivers are installed and recalibrate the touchscreen
C. Spray the monitor with the special cleaning solution and gently wipe the surface clean.
D. Check the cable connections between the monitor and the system.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How should a customer respond to a POST memory error message? (Select two.)
A. Press Enter to see more information about the error.
B. Press F1 to ignore the message and continue.
C. Press Ctrl/Alt/Delete to reboot the system
D. Press F10 to correct a system configuration error.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which items that are not shipped with the HP ap5000 AiO POS System are required to recover the
operating system? (Select two)
A. keyboard
B. flash drive
C. optical drive
D. mouse
Answer: A,C

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