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Exam Code: C90-03A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 21 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Cloud Service Consumer A invokes Cloud Service A from Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) (1). To
fulfill the request from Cloud Service Consumer A, Cloud Service A needs to invoke Cloud Service B that
resides on Cloud Y (owned by Cloud Provider Y) (2). After completing its processing, Cloud Service B
sends a response to Cloud Service A (3). Cloud Service A verifies the response and then finally sends its
response to Cloud Service Consumer A (4).
The guaranteed availability of the Cloud Service A implementation is 95% and the guaranteed availability
of the Cloud Service B implementation is 95%. Which of the following statements accurately describes the
actual availability that Cloud Service Consumer A can receive based on the described scenario?
A. Because Cloud Service Consumer A's response message is processed by two separate cloud
services, the combined availability increases as follows:
1.- (1 - 0.95) X (1 - 0.95) = 0.9975 or 99.75%
B. Because Cloud Service A acts as both a cloud service and cloud service consumer in order to
process Cloud Service Consumer B's request message, Cloud Service A forms a dependency on
Cloud Service B. As a result, the combined availability decreases, as follows:
0.95 X 0.95 = 0.9025 or 90.25%
C. Cloud Service Consumer A benefits from redundant cloud service implementations, thereby
increasing the guaranteed availability as follows:
1.- (1 - (0.95 - 0.1))X (1 - (0.95 - 0.1)) = 0.9775 or 97.75%
D. As a result of the dependency formed by Cloud Service Aon Cloud Service B,the combined availability
decreases significantly as follows:
(0.95 X 0.95) - 0.1 = 0.8025 or 80.25%
Answer: B

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NO.2 The cloud service owner of Cloud Service A is evaluating Clouds X, Y and Z to determine which cloud
environment can offer the greatest level of reliability. All three clouds are geographically dispersed across
three separate time zones. As a result, each cloud experiences usage peaks at different times. Based on
the metrics provided, the greater the usage of a cloud, the lower its reliability. When the cloud service
owner complains to Cloud Provider A (the owner of all three clouds) that none of the clouds provide an
adequate level of reliability, Cloud Provider A suggests a solution that increases resiliency.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a solution that can be used to fulfill the resiliency
requirements of Cloud Service A.?
A. Redundant implementations of Cloud Service A are deployed in all three clouds. The failover system
mechanism and a special type of automated scaling listener mechanism are implemented to establish a
system whereby one redundant Cloud Service A implementation will automatically take over from another.
B. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby an automated scaling listener mechanism is
implemented on each cloud in such a way that every cloud can automatically scale out to another cloud.
As a result, if reliability problems occur on any one cloud, the subsequent requests will be scaled out to
another cloud in a manner that is transparent to cloud service consumers.
C. A failover system mechanism is implemented on Cloud X, which acts as the primary point of contact for
cloud serviceconsumers. Upon failure conditions occurring, the Cloud Service A implementation on Cloud
X automatically hands over control of current and future message requests from cloud service consumers
to Cloud Y. Cloud Y retains control of cloud serviceconsumer communication until the next failure
condition occurs, at which point it hands over control to Cloud Z. Finally, if a failure condition occurs in
Cloud Z. control is handed back to Cloud X.
D. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby a resource replication mechanism is implemented
on each cloud. This allows Cloud Service A to be automatically replicated across cloud environments,
thereby enabling each implementation of Cloud Service A to take the place of another, whenever failure
conditions occur.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: L50-502
Exam Name: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.5 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.13 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: GCIA
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Certified Intrusion Analyst)
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Total Q&A: 508 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He wants to investigate a
suspicious email that is sent using a Microsoft Exchange server. Which of the following files will he review
to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Checkpoint files
B. EDB and STM database files
C. Temporary files
D. cookie files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following tools performs comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items,
including over 6100 potentially dangerous files/CGIs?
A. Dsniff
B. Snort
C. Nikto
D. Sniffer
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It can detect events scattered over the network.
B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
D. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Sasha wants to add an entry to your DNS database for your mail server. Which of the following types of
resource records will she use to accomplish this.?
A. ANAME
B. SOA
C. MX
D. CNAME
Answer: C

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NO.5 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned
to him to investigate a multimedia enabled mobile phone, which is suspected to be used in a cyber crime.
Adam uses a tool, with the help of which he can recover deleted text messages, photos, and call logs of
the mobile phone. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. FAU
B. FTK Imager
C. Galleta
D. Device Seizure
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the default port for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 25
C. TCP port 80
D. UDP port 161
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following can be applied as countermeasures against DDoS attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Limiting the amount of network bandwidth.
B. Blocking IP address.
C. Using LM hashes for passwords.
D. Using Intrusion detection systems.
E. Using the network-ingress filtering.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.8 Which of the following tools are used to determine the hop counts of an IP packet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. TRACERT
B. Ping
C. IPCONFIG
D. Netstat
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Tunneling proxy server
B. Reverse proxy server
C. Anonymous proxy server
D. Intercepting proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are the Network Administrator for a large corporate network. You want to monitor all network traffic
on your local network for suspicious activities and receive a notification when a possible attack is in
process. Which of the following actions will you take for this?
A. Enable verbose logging on the firewall
B. Install a network-based IDS
C. Install a DMZ firewall
D. Install a host-based IDS
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is known as a message digest?
A. Hash function
B. Hashing algorithm
C. Spider
D. Message authentication code
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following methods is a behavior-based IDS detection method?
A. Knowledge-based detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Statistical anomaly detection
D. Pattern matching detection
Answer: C

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NO.13 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for BlueWells Inc. The company has a
Windowsbased network. Mark is giving a presentation on Network security threats to the newly recruited
employees of the company. His presentation is about the External threats that the company recently faced
in the past. Which of the following statements are true about external threats?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are the threats that originate from outside an organization in which the attacker attempts to gain
unauthorized access.
B. These are the threats that originate from within the organization.
C. These are the threats intended to flood a network with large volumes of access requests.
D. These threats can be countered by implementing security controls on the perimeters of the network,
such as firewalls, which limit user access to the Internet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Your company has a Windows 2000based
network. You want to verify the connectivity of a host in the network. Which of the following utilities will you
use?
A. PING
B. TELNET
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements are true about snort?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It develops a new signature to find vulnerabilities.
B. It detects and alerts a computer user when it finds threats such as buffer overflows, stealth port scans,
CGI attacks, SMB probes and NetBIOS queries, NMAP and other port scanners, well-known backdoors
and system vulnerabilities, and DDoS clients.
C. It encrypts the log file using the 256 bit AES encryption scheme algorithm.
D. It is used as a passive trap to record the presence of traffic that should not be found on a network, such
as NFS or Napster connections.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: B

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NO.17 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. He is performing real-time traffic analysis on IP
networks using Snort. Adam is facing problems in analyzing intrusion data. Which of the following
software combined with Snort can Adam use to get a visual representation of intrusion data?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Basic Analysis and Security Engine (BASE)
B. sguil
C. KFSensor
D. OSSIM
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Which of the following Web attacks is performed by manipulating codes of programming languages
such as SQL, Perl, Java present in the Web pages?
A. Command injection attack
B. Code injection attack
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Cross-Site Scripting attack
Answer: B

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NO.19 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Document Object Model (DOM)
B. Non persistent
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.20 Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.
Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Attacker can perform Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the
intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.
B. Attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.
C. Attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking
the second firewall if it is different.
D. Attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of the com pany
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 John, a novice web user, makes a new E-mail account and keeps his password as "apple", his favorite
fruit. John's password is vulnerable to which of the following password cracking attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dictionary attack
B. Hybrid attack
C. Brute Force attack
D. Rule based attack
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.22 Allen works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned to
him to investigate a computer, which is used by the suspect to sexually harass the victim using instant
messenger program. Suspect's computer runs on Windows operating system. Allen wants to recover
password from instant messenger program, which suspect is using, to collect the evidence of the crime.
Allen is using Helix Live for this purpose. Which of the following utilities of Helix will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. Asterisk Logger
B. Access PassView
C. Mail Pass View
D. MessenPass
Answer: D

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NO.23 SSH is a network protocol that allows data to be exchanged between two networks using a secure
channel. Which of the following encryption algorithms can be used by the SSH protocol?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Blowfish
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.24 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company's Windows 2000-based network is
configured with Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2000. You want to configure intrusion
detection on the server. You find that the different types of attacks on the Intrusion Detection tab page of
the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box are disabled. What is the most likely cause?
A. The PPTP through ISA firewall check box on the PPTP tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
B. The Enable IP routing check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box
is not selected.
C. The Log packets from Allow filters check box on the Packet Filters tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
D. The Enable Intrusion detection check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties
dialog box is not selected.
Answer: D

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NO.25 This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows: -It displays the signal
strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc. -It is commonly used for the
following purposes:
A. War driving
B. Detecting unauthorized access points
C. Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
D. WEP ICV error tracking
E. Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
Answer: D

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NO.26 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The office network is configured as an IPv6
network. You have to configure a computer with the IPv6 address, which is equivalent to an IPv4 publicly
routable address. Which of the following types of addresses will you choose?
A. Site-local
B. Global unicast
C. Local-link
D. Loopback
Answer: B

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NO.27 Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on
Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew
wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X.
Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?
A. LILO
B. BootX
C. NT Loader
D. GRUB
Answer: B

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NO.28 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports that must be used.
He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the
Internet. Adam is still worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert
channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D. Block ICMP type 3 messages
Answer: A

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NO.29 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator in a law firm. He has been assigned with
his first project. Adam collected all required evidences and clues. He is now required to write an
investigative report to present before court for further prosecution of the case. He needs guidelines to
write an investigative report for expressing an opinion. Which of the following are the guidelines to write
an investigative report in an efficient way?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. All ideas present in the investigative report should flow logically from facts to conclusions.
B. Opinion of a lay witness should be included in the investigative report.
C. The investigative report should be understandable by any reader.
D. There should not be any assumptions made about any facts while writing the investigative report.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.30 Which of the following file systems is designed by Sun Microsystems?
A. NTFS
B. CIFS
C. ZFS
D. ext2
Answer: C

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NO.1 The /cat/etc/passwd file on a client computer contains the following entry: Martha:x:::::bin/false
Which of the following is true for Martha?
A. Martha's password is x.
B. Martha has full access on the computer.
C. Martha has limited access on the computer.
D. Martha has been denied access on the computer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about service pack are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product.
B. It is a medium by which product updates are distributed.
C. It is a term generally related to security problems in a software.
D. It is a term used for securing an operating system.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You have configured a VPN server for remote users to connect to the company's network. Which of the
following encryption types will Linux use?
A. MSCHAP
B. RC2
C. 3DES
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about satellite broadband Internet access? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is among the least expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
B. It is among the most expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
C. This type of internet access has low latency compared to other broadband services.
D. This type of internet access has high latency compared to other broadband services.
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect World Inc. You are configuring a network that will
include 1000BaseT network interface cards in servers and client computers. What is the maximum
segment length that a 1000BaseT network supports?
A. 100 meters
B. 480 meters
C. 1000 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: A

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NO.6 You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to protect your server from intruders
who exploit services that are started with TCP Wrappers. Which of the following files will help you protect
the server?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. httpd.conf
B. lilo.conf
C. hosts.deny
D. hosts.allow
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 Which of the following ports is the default port for IMAP4 protocol?
A. TCP port 443
B. TCP port 143
C. TCP port 25
D. TCP port 80
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have a customer who wants to put wireless internet in his remote cabin. The cabin is many miles
from any other building with internet connectivity or access points. What should you recommend?
A. DSL
B. FIOS connection
C. Satellite internet
D. Microwave connection
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network?
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 250 meters
D. 500 meters
E. 150 meters
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SOA
B. SRV
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a
network?
A. Cookies
B. Sam Spade
C. NIDS
D. ACL
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a security threat if included in the search path of a computer?
A. /usr
B. /sbin
C. .
D. /usr/bin
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following enables an inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his
invention?
A. Patent
B. Artistic license
C. Phishing
D. Spam
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is
true?
A. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.
B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
C. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
Answer: A

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NO.15 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He executes the following
command in the terminal:
echo $USER, $UID
Which of the following will be displayed as the correct output of the above command?
A. root, 500
B. root, 0
C. John, 502
D. John, 0
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following terms refers to manual assignment of IP addresses to computers and devices?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Spoofing
C. APIPA
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have been hired by the company to upgrade its existing Windows NT 4.0 network to a Windows
2000 based network. In the past, the company's support group has faced difficult time because users
changed the configuration of their workstations. Which of the following features of the Active Directory
would best justify the move to the Windows 2000 network.?
A. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
B. Organizational unit (OU)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Group policy object (GPO)
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following is not an encryption technology?
A. Blowfish
B. KILL
C. 3DES
D. MD5
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following terms is synonymous with the willful destruction of another person's property?
A. Spoofing
B. Hacking
C. Phishing
D. Vandalism
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following frequencies are used by wireless standard 802.11n to operate? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 1 Ghz
B. 2 Ghz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 5 Ghz
Answer: C, D

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NO.21 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domain-
based network. The company has two offices in different cities. The offices are connected through the
Internet. Both offices have a Windows 2003 server named SERV1 and SERV2 respectively. Mark is
required to create a secure connection between both offices. He configures a VPN connection between
the offices using the two servers. He uses L2TP for VPN and also configures an IPSec tunnel. Which of
the following will he achieve with this configuration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Encryption for the local files stored on the two servers
B. Highest possible encryption for traffic between the offices
C. Mutual authentication between the two servers
D. Extra bandwidth on the Internet connection
Answer: B, C

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NO.22 Which of the following statements regarding Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SSL provides message integrity to prevent alteration to the message.
B. During SSL session, information is encrypted to prevent unauthorized disclosure.
C. SSL can process credit cards.
D. SSL can support 128-bit encryption.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.23 You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You
have created a script named lf.cgi. You want to provide the following permissions on it:
rwsr-sr-- Which of the following commands will you execute?
A. chmod 2754
B. chmod 6754
C. chmod 7754
D. chmod 4754
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following devices connects two segments of the same local area network (LAN) but keeps
traffic separate on the two segments?
A. Hub
B. Modem
C. Bridge
D. Switch
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following directories contains the log files in Linux?
A. /log
B. /root
C. /var/log
D. /etc
Answer: C

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NO.26 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In
this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be
reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. newgrp
B. chgrp
C. chown
D. chmod
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is NOT the feature of SELinux in the Red Hat enterprise Linux?
A. SELinux does not provide Kernel-level security.
B. All process and files have a context.
C. SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC) security in Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
D. SELinux applies to all users, including root.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in
an IP multicast group?
A. IGMP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.29 Rick works as a Network Administrator. He is configuring the systems for maximum security. Before
using the security template, he wants to edit it to change some of the security settings that are not
required for now. Which of the following tools will he choose, to edit the security template?
A. Group Policy MMC snap-in
B. Security Configuration and Analysis MMC snap-in
C. Security Templates MMC snap-in
D. SECEDIT utility
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability
and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which
they are executed?
A. Application virtualization
B. Encapsulation
C. System hardening
D. Failover
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following methods is NOT appropriate for the initial setup for a ProxySG 2XX series?
A. Serial console Cable
B. LCD Panel
C. Web Wizard accessing HTTPS port 8083
D. Blue Coat Director applying a profile
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a
tunnel e.g. SSL tunneling.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Instant Messaging proxies are available on the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a)AIM (b)Jabber
(c)MSN
(d)Yahoo
A.a, b and c only
B.a, b and d only
C.A. c and d only
D.b. c and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same
time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The default policy for ProxySG is DENY. Network administrator creates a VPM policy allowing access
to some Web host only for certain users (see picture). When installing this policy, ProxySG issues a
warning that this rule will be ignored. What change can be applied in order to fix this?
A. Add another rule to the Web Access layer creating an exception for users NOT allowedto access the
host.
B. Add another Web Access layer and set its default action to Allow.
C. Add Web Authentication layer with a rule having Force Authenticate action.
D. Add Web content layer with a rule preventing serving content fromProxySG cache to unauthorized
users.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Answer: B

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NO.9 A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply)
(a)Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging.
(b)Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining.
(c)Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.a and c only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (choose all that apply)
(a)Administrator attempts to access Management console
(b) user attempts to access the internet
(c)Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d)User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A.All of the above
B.b, c andd only
C.a, c and d only
D.a, b and c only
Answer: A

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NO.11 What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Answer: C

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NO.12 What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV Is accessed in ICAP REOMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOO mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
Answer: A

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NO.13 The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data
B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (choose all that apply)
(a)Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image
(b)Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the
appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup
(c)Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one
(d)Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux
computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG,
start it up and reset the admin's password.
A.a only
B.a and b only
C.a and c only
D.a and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A.http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoar.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all
that apply)
(a)IWA
(b)RADIUS
(C)LDAP
(d)TACACS+
A.a, b and d only
B.b, c and d only
C.a, b andc only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.19 The goal of creating and using Notify User objects is (Choose all that apply)
(a)to deny access to a URL
(b)to deliver a splash page to the clients
(c)to warn a user before allowing access to a URL
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a)All
(b)Any
(c)Explicit
(d)Transparent
A.a, c and d only
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c andd only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: adwords-reporting
Exam Name: Google (Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 211 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Jane is using Google AdWords and she's receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane
would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the
following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
Answer: C

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NO.2 Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the
better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality
score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other
factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the
quality score?
A. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
B. The lower a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
C. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have added "coffee cups" as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the
following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for "coffee cups" as it's using the exact match options.
B. Only search for "coffee cups" (lower cased) as it's using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for "coffee cups" in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include "coffee cups" in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He's examining the e-commerce reports
to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he's received. Ben would like to see
the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he's received. Within the
e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C

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NO.7 Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client's goal is
to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not
sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client
has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a
result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find
the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can't track the ROI if there's nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like
to configure the dashboard's graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps
to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visits and % New Visits.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field
called "other" and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose
for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A

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NO.10 In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website
profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.12 How is an ad's Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It's the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content
Network.
C. It's the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You've created a Google AdWords campaign for
your client's website and you've identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You'd like to use a Google tool
to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings.
What Google AdWords tool would you use?
A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you're helping them optimize their Google
AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches
to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve
ROI for your client's ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D

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NO.15 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he
uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for
customers that complete the 'contact me' field on his website to track return on investment for the
marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the
configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts
through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the 'metric goal' field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose
"dollars" in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the 'goal value' field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he
has created for the 'contact me' form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the "goal
completion" field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many
dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: C

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NO.17 Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads - one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups - one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns - one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it's the most common of the four languages she's targeting.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Holly is the webmaster for her company's website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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NO.19 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you're interested in seeing your most
popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and
wellorganized.
As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you
recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for
costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
Answer: A

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