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Exam Code: HP0-J25
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks AIS 2008 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 On an EVA, which event log file is used to log disk shelf events?
A. Controller Event log file
B. Hardware Event log file
C. Storage Cell Event log file
D. Management Event log file
Answer: A

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NO.2 What can you use to display performance data provided by the EVA?
A. SIM
B. SSSU.exe
C. Command View EVA
D. performance monitor of the Microsoft Windows operating system
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?
A. through the FCIP link
B. by using SmartStart EVA
C. by using a Telnet connection
D. through Command View EVA
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?
A. multiples of 2
B. multiples of 6
C. multiples of 8
D. multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which critical events does the Device Specific Module (DSM) impact? (Select three.)
A. error handling
B. bus initialization
C. request handling
D. device initialization
E. OS kernel interface
F. plug and play interface
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Which controller components of an EVA4400 are customer replaceable?
A. only cache batteries
B. the entire shelf as one unit
C. all components that are available as spare parts
D. all components you can replace without opening the shelf
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?
A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically locate
and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and select
the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve
the I/O performance?
A. write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

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NO.10 On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?
A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J28
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks Virtual Library Systems)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 What are advantages of having separate zones for disk storage systems and disk-to-disk backup
systems in storage area networks? (Select two.)
A.The physical and virtual tape controllers do not discover disk controllers.
B.Administrative and management costs are lower.
C.Tape multipathing functionality can be used to map the physical and virtual devices.
D.There is less host access and improved target and LUN shifting.
E.Performance is improved, due to dedicated HBAs for disk and tape access.
Answer: AE

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NO.2 What is an advantage of using the automigration feature of virtual library systems?
A.The tapes are analyzed during backup to migrate all files. After the content is decoded, only those files
are compared to the same files from the previous backup.B.It leverages object-level differencing code
with a design centered on performance and scalability.
C.The destination tapes are block-by-block copies of the source tapes and can easily be restored by any
tape library to which the backup application has access.
D.It delivers fastest restores from recently backed up data, maintains the complete most recent copy of
backup data, but eliminates duplicate data in previous backups.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is oversubscription in the context of virtual libraries?
A.more capacity allocated than physically installed
B.more libraries created than currently licensed
C.more virtual drives created than currently licensed
D.more data streams than the library can process
Answer: A

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NO.4 When would you opt to use an HP Data Protector environment with Advanced Backup to Disk licensing
in conjunction with a virtual library system instead of a traditional backup-to-disk solution? (Select two.)
A.when you want to use target-based compression
B.when the environment consists mainly of LAN clients
C.when you want to use existing SAN storage or locally attached storage
D.when there are many SAN hosts writing to disk
E.when there are relatively few SAN hosts writing to disk
Answer: AD

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NO.5 With the maximum number of supported nodes, running the VLS software version 3.x, how many arrays
are supported in a VLS9000?
A.8
B.16
C.32
D.64
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J26
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 213 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less
than 140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A.3:1 to 1:1
B.1:1 to 3:1
C.15:1 to 7:1
D.7:1 to 15:1
Answer:B

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NO.2 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A.fabric management service
B.fabric interconnection without merge
C.SAN availability improvement
D.SAN extension across long distances
Answer:B

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NO.3 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at a
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two).
A.HP StorageWorks FlexCopy
B.HP Continuous Access EVA
C.additional disks in the EVA
D.HP Virtual Replicator
E.HP Business Copy EVA
Answer:B E

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NO.4 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A.serial numbers of connected servers
B.SAN switch zoning configurations
C.storage controller operating mode parameters
D.IP addresses of the connected servers
E.World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer:B C

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NO.5 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure all
customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A.Card Arrangement
B.Information Extraction
C.Brainstorming
D.Process Mapping
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for a
customer documentation?
A.SAN Health
B.SAN Designer
C.SAN Visibility
D.SAN Navigator
Answer:C

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NO.7 What has the most influence on the response time of a hard disk drive?
A.arbitration
B.host request
C.rotational delay
D.seek time
Answer:C

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NO.8 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A.Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B.Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A.Timing variables do not need to match.
B.R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C.R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D.R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which features can affect performance in a SAN? (Select three.)
A.cable modes
B.number of ISLs
C.type of LC connector
D.storage array configuration
E.type and capacity of disks used
F.storage access restrictions
Answer:B D E

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Exam Code: HP0-A22
Exam Name: HP (NonStop Systems and Technologies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 What is the function of Group Numbers when they are assigned to hardware components?
A.They determine the order in which racks are added to the system.
B.They enable disk drives to be switched from group to group easily.
C.They correspond to the processor numbers housed within the group.
D.They uniquely identify the IOAM and p-switch components of the system.
Answer:D

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NO.2 A ServerNet Link connects a ServerNet node to which other component in a ServerNet SAN?
A.a TorusNet node
B.a ServerNet router
C.a different ServerNet group
D.a Fibre Channel disk module
Answer:B

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NO.3 In a NonStop NS16000 series server, what is one of the functions of the LSU?
A.disk mirroring
B.memory reintegration
C.system load balancing
D.correcting memory errors
Answer:B

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NO.4 In an NS-series server, what is the maximum number of Fibre Channel Disk Modules (FCDM) that can
be daisy-chained together?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the default TCP/IP port number used by the OSM Service Connection when connecting to the
NS-series system?
A.7500
B.7501
C.9990
D.9991
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which adapter in NS-series systems provides connectivity to the M8xxx disk drives?
A.FESA
B.G4SA
C.FCSA
D.SNDA
Answer:C

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NO.7 What do you configure to enable automatic dial-out of problem event messages to a service provider?
A.$0
B.GMCSC
C.OSM Notification Director
D.OSM Service Connection
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which utility displays system resource use in block mode and bar graph form?
A.PEEK
B.ViewSys
C.ViewPoint
D.SEEVIEW
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which OSM application is used to change the IP address of the p-switch in an NS-series system?
A.Event Viewer
B.Low-Level Link
C.Service Application
D.Notification Director
Answer:B

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NO.10 What is a key attribute of online transaction processing?
A.Distributed processing does not work well with online transaction processing applications.
B.The application keeps the database current at all times by recording transactions as they occur.
C.Application complexity and high performance must be compromised to attain data integrity and data
security.
D.The system may be unable to back out those transactions that transform the database from one
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Answer:B

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Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProCurve MultiService)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 How many Virtual Service Communities (VSCs) does the M110 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does a client associated to an MSM Access Point receive its DHCP IP Address?
A. from either the AP's internal DHCP server or an external DHCP server
B. it cannot receive a DHCP IP Address and a static IP Address is required
C. through an external DHCP server
D. with the AP's internal DHCP server
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the key features of ProCurve Guest Management Software (formerly VMT)? (Select
two.)
A. the ability to create user logo designs
B. the ability to perform batch creation of user accounts
C. the ability to print X.509 certificates
D. the ability to manage a visitor's account on MSM controllers
E. the ability to import special programs for customer use
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What are the characteristics of the MSM422?
A. a/b/g/n, single radio
B. a/b/g/n, triple radio, integrated AP/Controller
C. a/b/g/n, dual radio, mixed radios
D. a/b/g, dual radio, mixed radios
Answer: C

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NO.5 If a DHCP server does not exist on a network, the Ethernet port on an autonomous mode
MSM Access Point would be assigned a default IP address of 192.168.1.1. Given this information,
which statement is correct?
A. An internal DHCP server in the MSM Access Point can be configured to assign any appropriate IP
Address to the port.
B. An internal dip switch can be configured to change the default IP address of the Ethernet port.
C. An autonomous mode MSM Access Point can be ordered with the option of a different Default IP
Address that could be assigned to its Ethernet port.
D. Without an external DHCP server, the port will always remain at 192.168.1.1.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The MSM730 has 4 Ethernet ports; one for the LAN and another for the Internet. What is the
function of the other two Ethernet ports?
A. CLI access
B. client connectivity
C. reserved for future expansion
D. uplinks
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which 802.11n frequency ranges are supported on the MSM422? (Select two.)
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 72 MHz
E. 105.7 MHz
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 ProCurve's RF Planner is made specifically for which operating system?
A. Linux
B. MAC OS
C. Microsoft Windows
D. Sun Microsystems Solaris
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have been asked by your customer to create a wireless network in a public area with
centralized user authentication. Given the following choices, which authentication method would
you choose to implement?
A. 802.1X authentication
B. MAC authentication
C. Web authentication
D. WEP authentication
Answer: C

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NO.10 On the MSM710, PoE can power the device from which port?
A. port 1
B. Internet port
C. LAN port
D. only as a backup to the direct DC power adapter
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-T14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers Rev 8.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 .Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX
3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A

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NO.2 .You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed. Which
offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D

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NO.3 .The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed through iLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the
Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C

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NO.6 .After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer.
Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the
documented fix or fixes were. What else should you provide as part of the HP
Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy of SmartStart
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 .Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B

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NO.8 .For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage
arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B

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NO.10 .What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire
drivers and ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-T11
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 A customer asks you for information about the advantages of RAID 6 over other RAID levels What can
you recommend? (Select three)
A. Performance is equivalent to RAID 5 when reading data.
B. It is the most cost-effective of the fault-tolerant RAID solutions.
C. lt has greater faulttolerancethan RAID4, RAID 1+0, or RAID5.
D. It uses the most storage capacity for fault tolerance of all the RAID levels.
E. it is ideal for applications requiring large logical drives with many physical drives.
Answer: ACE

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NO.2 A customer has an existing mission critical database application using approximately 20TB of network
storage and plans to add a web server component to the existing environment to increase the storage by
50% Which tape storage technology would you recommend?
A. Autoloader
B. Travan Tape System
C. business-class library
D. enterprise-class library
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which system architecture is displayed?
A. Dual Peer I/O Bus (DPIO)
B. Triple Peer I/O Bus (TPIO)
C. Highly Parallel System Architecture (HPSA)
D. Memory and I/O Controller Architecture (MIOC)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which backup type would you recommend if a customer environment requires saving the latest
version of each file?
A. full
B. copy
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of nodes supported in a Fibre Channel Switched Fabric (FC-SW)
environment?
A. 125
B. 126
C. 15 million
D. 16 million
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the difference between single-ended SCSI and differential SCSI?
A. Single-ended uses twisted pair wires
B. Differential is more susceptible to noise
C. Differential uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
D. Single-ended uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
Answer: D

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NO.7 The system administrator typically performs a full backup every Monday and incremental backups on
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays In addition, full backups are performed at the end of the week
and at the end of the month
Which GFSterm refers to the monthly full backup?
A. son
B. sister
C. father
D. grandfather
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which RAID implementation allows for simultaneous failure of multiple drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a characteristic of Double Data Rate (DDR) RAM?
A. sends data every other clock cycle
B. sends data on the rising edge of the clock cycle only
C. sends data on the falling edge of the clock cycle only
D. sends data on both the rising and falling edge of each clock cycle
Answer: D

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NO.10 What best describes PCI-X architecture?
A. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
B. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
C. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
D. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statements apply to AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three )
A. Each processor can access only its own memory
B. Requests for memory access are handled by the Northbndge ASIC
C. Each processor can access the full complement of installed memory
D. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors
E. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors
F. Requests for memory access are handled directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport lnk
Answer: ADF

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NO.12 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is an advantage of using iSCSI?
A. it enables the use of SCSI cables for Ethernet communications
B. it enables the use of SAS and SATA drives using standard SCSI controllers
C. It overcomes the inability to use shared storage devices in a heterogeneous environment
D. It overcomes the distance limitations associated with standard Fibre Channel storage transport
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is correct when comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron
processors'?
A. Xeon processors are optimized for parallel execution
B. Opteron processors are optimized for parallel execution
C. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed
D. Xeon processors use an integrated memory controller that operates at core processor speed
Answer: B

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NO.15 What happens if you install a 66MHz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? (Select two)
A. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 32-bit mode
C. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode
D. Any 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Which statement best describes PCI Express architecture?
A. Data is sent in parallel
B. Data is sent serially over each link
C. PCI Express has more pins than PCI-X
D. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is a characteristic of a PCI-X-based bus?
A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system
B. It is fully backward compatible with conventional PCI devices
C. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system
D. It is compatible with conventional PCI devices only after updating to newer drivers
Answer: B

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NO.18 Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) technology uses the same electrical and physical interface as which
technology?
A. IDE
B. ATA
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.19 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.20 How does the operation of RAID memory differ from RAID 5 disk storage? (Select three)
A. Data is written sequentially to all banks of memory
B. Data is written simultaneously to all banks of memory
C. Existing parity information must be read before calculating the new parity value
D. There is no need to read the existing parity before calculating a new parity value
E. The memory controller writes parity information to a dedicated parity bank of DIMMs
Answer: BDE

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