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Exam Code: HP2-H14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the All-in-One form factor of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. It is physically smaller than the chassis for the HP rp3000 POS System and HP rp5700 POS System
B. Its multiple expansion slots allow for greater expandability.
C. It requires only one power cord to turn on the entire unit including integrated peripherals.
D. It includes an integrated monitor and integrated POS keyboard.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer calls and says that the red power LED of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System is blinking nine
times. What does this indicate?
A. The system power is on, but the computer will not boot.
B. Processor thermal protection has been activated
C. A pre-video memory error has occurred.
D. USB ports have failed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer asks where the COM ports are on the HP ap5000 AiO POS System. They are not clearly
visible. Where are they located?
A. behind the cover on the rear panel of the unit
B. on the bottom of the unit, under the pedestal
C. along the side of the resistive touchscreen
D. on the side of the monitor, behind the resistive touchscreen
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to use a powered USB port but does not know how to locate it. Which statement is
true about the location and appearance of powered USB ports?
A. They are located on the rear I/O panel next to the AC power connector and are aligned vertically to
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
B. They are located on the rear I/O panel, are specially color coded, and have larger dual connectors that
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
C. They are located on the front panel under the power button and above the hard drive and power status
LEDs.
D. The ap5000 does not support powered USB ports.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The optional 26.4-cm (104-inch) Customer Facing Display (CFD) is a replacement for which component
of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. resistive touchscreen
B. non-electronic advertisement panel
C. 2-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display-VFD)
D. Multitrack Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer complains that his touchscreen reads erratically and does not respond to a light touch. What
is a simple solution that might solve the problem?
A. Check the cable connection between the touchscreen and the system.
B. Clean the surface of the touchscreen and recalibrate it.
C. Gently shake the touchscreen to recalibrate the touch receptors.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which operating systems include McAfee Total Protection software in the preinstalled image for the HP
ap5000 AiO POS System.? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 7 Professional
B. FreeDOS
C. Windows XP Professional downgrade
D. POSReady 2009
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 After initial setup of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System, a customer reports that the touchscreen monitor
is not responding to touch. What should you tell the customer to do?
A. Make sure the monitor power cable is connected to AC power.
B. Make sure the touchscreen drivers are installed and recalibrate the touchscreen
C. Spray the monitor with the special cleaning solution and gently wipe the surface clean.
D. Check the cable connections between the monitor and the system.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How should a customer respond to a POST memory error message? (Select two.)
A. Press Enter to see more information about the error.
B. Press F1 to ignore the message and continue.
C. Press Ctrl/Alt/Delete to reboot the system
D. Press F10 to correct a system configuration error.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which items that are not shipped with the HP ap5000 AiO POS System are required to recover the
operating system? (Select two)
A. keyboard
B. flash drive
C. optical drive
D. mouse
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z07
Exam Name: HP (Advanced Enterprise Networking)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which switch provides the highest 10GbE port density in a 1RU platform?
A. S5800-60C-PWR
B. S5800 Gigabit Stackable
C. S5820X-28S
D. S7500E
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is the minimum number of switch fabrics necessary to enable basic functioning of an S12508
switch?
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.12
Answer: B

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NO.3 Match each Open Application Architecture (OAA) mode with the correct description.

NO.4 A customer requires full wire speed performance from an S12508 switch provisioned with 48-port
gigabit LPUs in all slots. How many switch fabrics are necessary to fulfill this requirement?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which types of 10GbE interfaces are supported by the S12500E switches? (Select two.)
A. XFP
B. CX4
C. SFP
D. X2
E. SFP+
Answer: AE

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of I/O modules supported by a member of the S9500E family?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 18
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which software feature is available on the Advanced I/O modules for the 9500E switches, but is not
available on the Standard I/O modules?
A. IRF
B. BFD
C. VPLS
D. MPLS
Answer:C

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NO.8 What are the advantages of using SFP+ transceivers instead of X2 transceivers? (Select two.)
A. larger buffer
B. higher throughput
C. higher port density
D. lower power usage
E. more cable options
Answer:C,D

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NO.9 Match each H3C switch model with the correct positioning.

NO.10 Match each H3C switch model with its description.

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Exam Code: SQ0-101
Exam Name: See-Beyond (E*Gate 4.5 Associate Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which command line utility will start the Control Broker?
A. stcregutil.exe
B. stcinstd.exe
C. stccb.exe
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 The default Schema:
A. Contains templates of configuration files and Monk scripts
B. Contains templates of ETD files
C. Contains user created and modified files for all users
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 The file system threshold is available only when a function of the:
A. Registry Service is customized
B. Installer Service is running
C. Control Broker Service is configured to control the hard drive
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 An e*Gate Schema:
A. Is comprised of at least one e*Way, Collaboration, Collaboration Rule, Multi-Mode
e*Way, IQ and Event Type
B. Is all configuration information organized into a logical project
C. Is stored in a file with the extension .rdb on each respective Participating Host
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 When upgrading from previous versions of e*Gate, a user may be prompted (by the
installation wizard) to back up RDB files, SeeBeyond recommends backing up these
files because:
A. They contain information about the e*Gate security system
B. They contain configuration information for Participating Hosts and Schemas installed
on the system
C. They contain all configuration information for a single Schema
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.6 The e*Gate product is primarily used for Application Integration via:
A. Moving messages between internal & external message queues
B. Transformation, application and data integration, and event propagation to/from
internal/external systems
C. Programming in Monk and Java programming languages
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 When deleting a Schema, which e*Gate service must be stopped?
A. The Control Broker service for the Schema to be deleted
B. The e*Gate Registry Service
C. The Lightweight Installer Service
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 Files that have advisory locks placed upon them by the Team Registry feature may
be "unlocked" when:
A. The user who checked out the file promotes the file
B. The user who checked out the file, removes the file from the Sandbox without
promoting it
C. The user exits the e*Gate Editor without ever saving the file
D. None of the above
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.9 How do you import an external file and register it in an e*Gate Schema?
A. Use the stcinstd.exe to import the file
B. Use the Import Module option
C. Use the Commit to Sandbox option
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where are the Schema related files maintained?
A. eGate/Server/registry/<SCHEMA NAME>.rdb
B. eGate/Server/registry/repository/Schemas.rdb
C. eGate/Server/registry/repository/<SCHEMA NAME> directory
D. eGate/client/monk scripts/common directory
Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: 090-161
Exam Name: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELS 5 ADMIN AE FR MASTER ACE V30A1 TEST)
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Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 How can you identify most daemon processes from the output of the following command: ps
-ef
A. There is a UID of system.
B. There is a ? in the tty column.
C. There is a d in the status column.
D. There is a PID greater than 500.
Answer: B

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NO.2 For Bourne and Korn shell users, one of the PERSONAL startup files is:
A. $HOME/.login
B. $HOME/.profile
C. /etc/login
D. /etc/profile
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your system does not boot near the end of the installation procedure, and you see the error
message:
PANIC: init
What is the most likely problem?
A. The installation program was unable to locate your primary floppy disk drive.
B. The VGA controller card is improperly configured.
C. The root filesystem did not properly mount.
D. The boot block was written on a bad track.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The login sequence is best described by which ordered sequence of processes?
A. login, init, getty, shell
B. login, getty, init, shell
C. init, getty, login, shell
D. init, login, getty, shell
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the following command line do: tar tv
A. It shows the type of archive device.
B. It shows the time when an archive was created.
C. It updates the time stamp on the default tar(C) device.
D. It displays the table of contents of the default tar(C) device.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which command can broadcast a warning to users that the system is going down in 15
minutes?
A. sync(ADM)
B. init 1
C. haltsys(ADM)
D. shutdown(ADM)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which crontab entry will mail /usr/adm/messages to root once every weekday (excluding
Saturday
and Sunday) at 9 pm?
A. 0 9 * * 1-5 mail root < /usr/adm/messages
B. 0 9 * * * mail root < /usr/adm/messages
C. 0 21 * * 1-5 mail root < /usr/adm/messages
D. 0 21 * * * mail root < /usr/adm/messages
Answer: C

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NO.8 What information is NOT required for the cbackup(ADM) command to perform a backup?
A. Backup device
B. Backup level
C. Backup time
D. Filesystem
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which filesystems support versioning?
A. EAFS and HTFS
B. DTFS and HTFS
C. EAFS, DTFS, and HTFS
D. All supported filesystems
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which programs are executed by init(M) from the /etc/inittab file when the system enters
run-level
2?
A. /etc/ifor_pmd, /etc/asktimerc, and /etc/smmck
B. /etc/ifor_pmd, /etc/asktimerc, and /etc/authckrc
C. /etc/asktimerc and /etc/authckrc
D. /etc/ifor_pmd and /etc/asktimerc
Answer: C

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NO.1 The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below: ONE TWO # Variable Type
Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8 1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16 1
year Num 8 0 Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both
data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted: data three;
merge one two; by year; run; Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 ] 2002 1 700 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two
where one.year = two.year; quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE REP COST
SMITH
200
SMITH
400
JONES
100
SMITH 600
JONES
100
JONES
200
JONES
400
SMITH
800
JONES
100
JONES 300
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE from one group by
rep having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AVERAGE
JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
JONES 320
C. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 500
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given the following SAS statement: %let idcode = Prod567; Which one of the following statements
stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C

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NO.5 The following SAS program is submitted: %let value = 9; %let value2 = 5; %let newval = %eval(&value
/ &value2); Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.8
D. null
Answer:A

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NO.6 The following SAS code is submitted: %macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH); data &dsn; set
sasuser.houses; if style = "&sub"; run; %mend; %houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch) %houses(sub = TWOSTORY) Which one of the following is the value of the
automatic macro variable SYSLAST?
A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE NUM VAR
1. 2 B 3C Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql; delete table one; quit;
B. proc sql; alter table one drop num, var; quit;
C. proc sql; drop table one; quit;
D. proc sql; delete from one; quit;
Answer: C

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NO.8 The following SAS program is submitted: data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4); set old; run; Which one
of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and BUFNO= options?
A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The following SAS program is submitted: <insert statement here>; %let development = ontime; proc
print data = sasuser.highway; title "For &dept"; title2 "This project was completed &development"; run;
Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to "For
research&development"?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
Answer: C

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NO.12 The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A: A Frequency 1 500,000
2 500,000 6 7,000,000
3,000 Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new; set temp; if a = 8 then b = 'Small '; else if a in(1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
B. data new; set temp; if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b = 'Small'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
C. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large '; else if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b =
'Small';
D. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large ';
if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Small'; run;
Answer: C

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NO.13 The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data = sales tagsort; by month year; run; Which of
the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s where p.item = c.item and p.item = s.item; quit;
B. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item =
cost.item and product.item = sales.item; quit;
C. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product as p, cost as c, sales as s where p.item = c.item
and p.item = s.item; quit;
D. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item; quit;
Answer: D

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NO.15 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR
SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two; quit; Which one of
the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ______________
1 CANADA 3
BERLIN
2
FRANCE 5
TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select country from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
GERMANY JAPAN
B. COUNTRY FRANCE BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE GERMANY
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data set
stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
Answer: B

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NO.19 The following SAS program is submitted: data one; do i = 1 to 10; ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs); set
temp point = ptobs nobs = totobs; output; end; stop; run; The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000
observations. Which one of the following represents the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C

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NO.20 Consider the following SAS log: 229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses; 231 if style = 'RANCH' then output sasuser.ranch; 232 else if style = 'CONDO'
then output sasuser.condo; 233 run; NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH. NOTE: A
stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system. 234 235 proc print data =
sasuser.condo; ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist. 236 run; NOTE: The SAS System
stopped processing this step because of errors. Which one of the following explains why the PRINT
procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Assume that you have completed the Register Tables wizard in SAS Data Integration Studio. Which
statement is true?
A. The physical table(s) selectedare copied to the application server specified in the library.
B. The physical table(s) selectedare copied to the SAS Folders location specified in the wizard.
C. Metadata for the physical table(s) selected is stored on the application server specified in the library.
D. Metadata for the physical table(s) selected is stored in the SAS Folders location specified in the wizard.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Registering metadata for an ODBC data source involves registering:
A. a library that will use a SAS/ACCESS engine to a specific database
B. only an ODBC data source definition
C. a server definition that points to the ODBC data source and a library accessing this server definition
D. a table pointing directly to the ODBC data source
Answer: C

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NO.3 SAS Data Integration Studio is dependent on which administration functions?
A. Setting up of SAS Information Map environment.
B. Setting up of SAS Web and SAS Portal environments.
C. Setting up of SAS Application Servers.
D. Setting up of SAS Libraries definitions.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the following display, can status handling be enabled for both the Extract transformation and the Sort
transformation?
A. Yes. The Return Code Check transformation can be added to the job flow immediately following the
Sort transformation - the Status Handling tab in this Return Code Check transformation properties can
then establish the desired status handling for both the Extract and Sort transformations.
B. No. Both the Extract and the Sort transformations do not have a Status Handling tab in their
corresponding properties window, therefore it is not possible to establish status handling for these
transformations.
C. Yes. The Return Code Check transformation can be added to the job flow twice, once immediately
following the Extract, and again immediately following the Sort - the Status Handling tab in each of the
Return Code Check transformations properties can then establish the desired status handling.
D. Yes. The status handling tab in the job properties window will allow you to select which transformation
(or even several transformations) that you want to define status handling for.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When writing postcode in the Precode and Postcode tab of the Transpose transformation in SAS Data
Integration Studio, which symbol allows you to reference the transformation output table regardless of the
actual physical name for that target table?
A. &syslast
B. syslast
C. &target
D. %target
Answer: A

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NO.6 Within SAS Data Integration Studio, which one of the following is NOT an option available from the
File-> New menu choice under External File grouping?
A. Delimited
B. Fixed Width
C. User Written
D. COBOL Copybook
Answer: D

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NO.7 The ability to deploy a SAS Data Integration Studio job as a Web service or a SAS Stored Process
requires additional set up that is performed in which client application?
A. SAS Data Integration Studio
B. SAS Enterprise Guide
C. SAS Job Deployment Studio
D. SAS Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement correctly defines a System DSN?
A. Not specific to an individual user. Anyone with permission to access the data source can use it.
B. Specific to an individual user. It is available only to the user who creates it.
C. Not specific to an individual user. It can be shared among users even though it is created locally.
D. Specific to an individual user. But it can be shared among users.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT defined as part of the New Library Wizard?
A. the type of library
B. the metadata name for the library
C. the location of the library
D. the metadata for the library tables
Answer: D

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NO.10 You want to register an external file with the following structure: first line contains Customer First and
Last Name second line is address1 third line is address 2 fourth line contains the phone number What
action should you take to read this file?
A. Use the New User Written External File wizard.
B. Use the New Fixed Width External File wizard.
C. Use the New Delimited External File wizard.
D. Use the New COBOL Copybook wizard.
Answer: A

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NO.1 After a full installation of RES PowerFuse on a workstation, an administrator has chosen not to run the
Workspace Composer automatically. How can the administrator configure to run the Workspace
Composer for all users on that workstation?
1. Use SetShell
2. Set the applicable registry key manually
3. Edit the RES PowerFuse Agent
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the extension of the files saved by the Desktop Sampler?
A. .XML
B. .ZIP
C. .DTS
D. .XBB
Answer: C

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NO.3 Terminal Servers and Workstations use RES PowerFuse licenses based on
A. the number of RES PowerFuse Agents.
B. the type of database server.
C. number of user sessions.
D. the operation system.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When publishing applications in Citrix XenApp using RES PowerFuse, Citrix XenApp published
applications can be assigned to one or more Organizational Units. How can the published applications be
configured to keep track of all changes in membership of that OU?
A. Configure the Citrix XenApp integration settings to rebuild its user list for OU-based applications at set
times.
B. Configure the application settings to rebuild its user list for the OUs concerned.
C. Schedule the Citrix XenApp integration settings to republish the application at set times.
D. Schedule the application to be republished at set times.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following tasks can be configured in an Alerting notification type? 1. External task 2.
Mobile text message 3. RES Wisdom task 4. E-mail message
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.6 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, and Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.7 Use several Active Directory forests in one RES PowerFuse environment

NO.8 If Time Restrictions have been configured for an application, how can the end user check to determine
at what times the application is available?
A. By clicking the Time Left system tray icon
B. By viewing the Opening Times tab for that application in PowerHelp
C. By checking the properties of the application's shortcut in the Start Menu
D. By viewing the Options tab in the Workspace Preferences tool
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following conditions need to be true to deny access when a user logs on to a computer?
1. All assigned Workspace Containers contain access control.
2. The user's computer is assigned to one or more Workspace Containers.
3. All assigned Workspace Containers are based on (partial) client name.
4. The user has not been granted access to any of the Workspace Containers.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.10 The "Comments" which can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is
displayed to the
A. end user when the application is started.
B. end user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application.
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When a drive mapping for a user fails, in which of the following may the event be displayed? 1. Audit
Trail 2. Usage Tracking viewer 3. An Alerting e-mail 4. Workspace Analysis details
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.12 When using multiple directory services concurrently, an administrator can do which of the following.?
1. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for tree A and for tree B, but not (yet) for
tree C
2. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for a part of a Novell tree (by setting a mount point)

NO.13 Which of the following USB rules can be used when creating a Zone?
1. USB Vendor ID
2. USB Product ID
3. USB Serial number
4. USB Storage capacity
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.14 Combine different parts of several Active Directory forests, plus a number of Microsoft Windows
Domains
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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3.An administrator changed the Zero Profile mode of an existing application. Users had existing stored
settings for that application. A week later, the administrator switched the application back into its previous
Zero Profile mode. Users now have their previous, week-old settings back. Which Migration Setting has
the administrator used for the switches?
A. Ignore
B. Remove
C. Apply/Convert and keep
D. Apply/Convert and remove
Answer: A

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4.At which of the following points can Folder Synchronization be initiated? 1. Logon 2. Refresh 3.
Reconnect 4. Logoff
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Desktop Sampler collects information about Context and Composition. Which of the following
Composition information is sampled?
1. Network Printers
2. User Registry Settings
3. Environment Variables
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A

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NO.16 When a user has a question about the user environment, the BEST place for an administrator to find
the answer is in
A. Diagnostics > Usage Tracking.
B. Security > Sessions.
C. Composition > User Settings.
D. Diagnostics > Workspace Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.17 From which of the following sections can Remote Assistance be started by users belonging to a
specified helper group?
1. Agents Overview
2. User Sessions
3. Workspace Analysis
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application in a RES PowerFuse
environment to track registry and files. Global User Settings is enabled. At application level, the User
Setting is enabled, Preserve is checked, Apply is not checked. Sampling ratio is set at 1:1. Start tracking
changes is configured to track changes immediately. What would be the end behavior for this User
Settings configuration?
A. No changes are saved or restored in the user session.
B. Changes are fully saved and fully restored in the user session.
C. Changes are fully saved but not restored in the user session.
D. New changes are not saved but previous settings are restored in the user session.
Answer: C

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NO.19 By applying an Exclusive Filter in the Management Console, which objects are displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating they can
be modified
Answer: B

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NO.20 A Scope limits a local administrator to his own OU. What is the BEST way to let the administrator
define separate E- Mail Template Outlook signatures for his part of the organization (based on OU)?
A. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to its own E-Mail Template.
B. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to the same E-Mail Template.
C. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to one E-Mail Template with access control set to all
OUs.
D. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to separate E-Mail Templates with access control set to
the respective OUs.
Answer: D

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