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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.2 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.3 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.6 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.11 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.12 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.14 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.15 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.20 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-696
Exam Name: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-140
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 Which additional configuration must be completed when setting up role restrictions using certificates?
A. Set up a certificate authentication server.
B. Configure the authentication realm to remember certificate information.
C. Configure the authentication realm to use a certificate server for authentication.
D. Configure a role mapping rule requiring certification information to map user to role.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?
A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies C. to allow
or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Infranet Controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check
server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which interface does the Infranet Controller use to push the configuration?
A. trusted port
B. internal port
C. trust interface
D. untrust interface
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)
A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which statement is correct about defining an Infranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?
A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Infranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Infranet Enforcer will belong.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two actions are required to configure an Infranet Enforcer to communicate with an Infranet
Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SSH.
B. Configure DNS.
C. Enable route mode.
D. Set certificate validation options.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 If Host Checker restrictions are applied at the role level and the "Allow access to the role if any ONE of
the select policies is passed" option is unchecked, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All roles are evaluated together.
B. Each role is evaluated separately.
C. Clients must pass all policies to access the role.
D. Clients will pass as long as one policy is accepted.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which action is optional when adding an authentication realm for use on an Infranet Controller?
A. Modify sign-in policy.
B. Configure role mapping.
C. Assign authentication server.
D. Configure authentication policy.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When the Infranet Enforcer is set up in transparent mode, which additional resource policy must be
configured to use OAC for IPsec enforcement?
A. IPsec Routing
B. Access Control
C. IP Address Pool
D. Source Interface
Answer: D

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NO.12 What will serve as a RADIUS Client to the Infranet Controller for 802.1x authentication?
A. an ACE server
B. a wireless network
C. an Ethernet switch
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and
must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. Which deployment method allows for multiple
platforms?
A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.14 On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Infranet Controller overwrite when the user
accesses the Infranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method
Answer: ADE

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NO.15 Which two methods of authentication are used by the Infranet Controller for IPSec enforcement?
(Choose two.)
A. dial-up VPN
B. IKE authentication
C. XAuth authentication
D. shared IKE authentication
Answer: AC

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NO.16 What happens when Host Checker is configured to perform checks every "0" minutes?
A. Host Checker is disabled.
B. Host Checker will perform continous checks.
C. Host Checker will perform checks when user logs out.
D. Host Checker will perform checks when user first logs in.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?
A. Infranet Enforcer firmware
B. Infranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is true about the operation of the Infranet Enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Infranet
Controller?
A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout
Answer: C

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NO.20 Your company has a mix of employees and contractors. Contractor usernames always begin with
"con-"; employee usernames never begin with "con-". You need to give employees access to all
resources and give contractors access to a limited set of resources. Employee and contractor roles have
been created with the appropriate access privileges, and the realm is set to merge settings for all
assigned roles. Which role mapping ruleset would result in the correct access privileges being assigned?
A. username="*" -> Employee-role Stop username="con-*" -> Contractor-role
B. username="*" -> Employee-role username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop
C. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop username="*" -> Employee-role
D. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role username="*" -> Employee-role Stop
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-560
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.11 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.17 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.20 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: JN0-101
Exam Name: Juniper (JNCIA-JUNOS EXAM OBJECTIVES)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 190 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt.?
A.run cli
B.cli
C.start cli
D.edit
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A.snoop
B.tcpdump
C.monitor
D.tail
Answer: C

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NO.3 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A.11001111
B.11101011
C.11010111
D.11010101
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which account is used to access a Junos device in a factory-default configuration?
A.root
B.admin
C.juniper
D.user
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP address 192.168.1.142? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination)
A.10.20.106.10
B.10.20.14.131
C.10.18.1.1
D.10.20.14.130
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two)
A.It must include a root password
B.It is roll back file number 50, and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50
C.It is created by issuing request system configuration rescue save
D.It is updated automatically when you commit
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
[edit fireall family inet filter COS-CLASSIFIER]
user@router# show
term MANAGER {
form {
soruce-address {
192.168.200.0/25;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.1/32;
}
}
then {
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
accept;
}
}
term ALL-OTHER-TRAFFIC {
then accept;
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input COS-CLASSIFIER
}
address 192.168.200.1/24;
}
}
A.behavior aggregate
B.policer
C.multifield
D.forward policy
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are the top of hierarchy and must configure OSPF on inteface so-0/0/0 unit 100.Which two
achieve this result? (Choose two)
A.set protocols set ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.edit protocols ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
Answer: BD

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NO.9 What are two valid match criteria for a routing policy? (Choose two)
A.OSPF area ID
B.prefix list
C.port
D.time-to-live (TTL)
Answer: AB

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NO.10 You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 1.1.1.1 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command
Which statement is correct?
A.The bypass-routing parameter is used to test the density on the T1 line
B.The bypass-routing parameter cannot be used on a T1 interface
C.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a host through an interface that has no route through
it
D.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a local WAN interface without generating any
outbound traffic
Answer: C

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NO.11 You have been asked to create a static route with a next hop that is not directly connected to the
router.Which configuration parameter enables the static route to accomplish this scenario?
A.resolve
B.indirect
C.next-hop
D.recursive
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the default import routing for OSPF?
A.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the 3 routing table
B.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table
C.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table
D.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the configuration and routing table in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy?
A.192.168.0.0/16 only
B.192.168.0.0/17 only
C.192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D.192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.14 What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A.root authentication
B.default gateway
C.hostname
D.management services
Answer: A

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NO.15 You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface.You have
decided to use a firewall filter.How should you apply the firewall filter?
A.as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B.as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C.as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D.as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which three protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose three)
A.HTTP
B.TFTP
C.DNS
D.SNMP
E.SMTP
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 Whitch three user authentication methos are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three)
A.RADIUS
B.CHAP
C.local user database
D.tacacs+
E.PAP
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Referring to the exhibit,
which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A.The route 192.168.1.0/25 is accepted
B.The route 192.168.2.0/25 is accepted
C.OSPF routes will be exported into RIP
D.RIP routes will be exported into OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which two statements are true about the forwarding table? (Choose two)
A.The forwarding table lists each source protocol and preference for each destination
B.The forwarding table constains only active routes
C.The forwarding table is used to process transit packets
D.The forwarding table is stored in compact flash
Answer: BC

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NO.20 What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A.10
B.15
C.150
D.160
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-370
Exam Name: Juniper (QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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Exam Code: JN0-120
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 How are the slot groups arranged in the ERX 700 Series Edge Router?
A. Group 1 - Slots 0 &1 Group 2 - Slot 2 Group 3 - Slot 3 Group 4 - Slot 4
B. Group 1 - Slots 2 & 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slot 6
C. Group 1 - Slot 2 Group 2 - Slot 3 Group 3 - Slot 4 Group 4 - Slot 5 & 6
D. Group 1 - Slot 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slots 6 & 7
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where should you install the spare line module in a redundancy group?
A. last slot in the chassis
B. first slot in the chassis
C. lowest numbered slot in the group
D. highest numbered slot in the group
Answer: C

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NO.4 A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a large
subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
Answer: A

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NO.6 You would like to install an OC-48c line module in an ERX 1440 Edge Router. Which slots can support
this configuration?
A. 0 and 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to advertise
customer networks into the provider's IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the SRP distribute to the line modules when a routing table changes?
A. updated RIB-Out
B. link-state information
C. an incremental update
D. the complete routing table
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Given the following router output, which configuration file will the router use at its next reload?
A. config
B. clientqos.cnf
C. startup-config
D. running-configuration
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which service does the ERX Edge Router support with a virtual router?
A. voice over IP
B. wholesale services
C. IP quality of service
D. SNMP management
Answer: B

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NO.15 You would like to configure your PC's IP address of 10.10.0.156 as an FTP host with a username of
user and a password of mypass. Which configuration command accomplishes this goal.?
A. host userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
B. host userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
C. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
D. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are two ways that IP datagrams are passed from the ingress line module to the egress line
module? (Choose two.)
A. over an ATM PVC
B. over a FastEthernet bus
C. over a Gigabit Ethernet bus
D. over high speed serial bus
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which protocol is used to transfer files to on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose two.)
A. SCP
B. FTP
C. RCP
D. TFTP
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 By default, how does the router handle changes to its operational configuration?
A. Changes are not implemented, but are saved automatically.
B. Changes are not implemented and must be written into memory.
C. Changes are implemented immediately and saved automatically.
D. Changes are implemented immediately, but must be written into memory.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces in 5
virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.20 You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0. The PVC
should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format. Which command
accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-531
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the
maximum number of LAN-to-LAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 You have configured the following on your device.
The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.4 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.5 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the route-based VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC
to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policy-based VPN from Server G to your PC's host
address.
Assume the gateways are static.
Which proxy-id must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two statements regarding NHTB are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the hub.
B. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the spoke.
C. When configuring routing on a spoke device with one tunnel interface the route to the tunnel interface
does not require a routing gateway address.
D. When configuring routing on a hub device with one tunnel interface terminating multiple VPN spokes,
the route to the tunnel interface does not require a routing gateway address.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?
A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Select PFS in Phase 2, then select the certificate to be used.
C. Use a custom set of Phase 1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
D. Use a custom set of Phase 2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 Which three items do you need to download and install on your ScreenOS device for IKE gateways to
be able to use digital certificates without OCSP? (Choose three.)
A. the CRL list
B. the SCEP list
C. a local certificate
D. the CA public key certificate
E. the CA private key certificate
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have created a VPN to a dynamic peer.
Which two configured parameters must match? (Choose two.)
A. static side peer-id
B. dynamic side local-id
C. static side IP address
D. dynamic side IP address
Answer: AB

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NO.15 How many tunnels would need to be created to build a full mesh between 10 VPN devices?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.16 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate has failed Phase 1 negotiations. The peer's certificate has
been rejected.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. One of the peering devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.18 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3-DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs and has intra-zone blocking enabled on
the Evil zone.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.20 What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to
become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

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NO.21 You create a policy-based VPN, and select an address group for the source address.
What will be the source component of the proxy-id seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

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NO.22 Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you
search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.24 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A. proxy-id
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <tunnel interface>.
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <physical interface>.
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

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NO.26 Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trust-vr
B. trust zone in the untrust-vr
C. untrust zone in the trust-vr
D. untrust zone in the untrust-vr
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have implemented a hub and spoke VPN. On the hub, there are two tunnel interfaces, one to
each spoke. Both tunnel interfaces are in the same zone.
Which two configuration options will control traffic between the spokes? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the common zone to block inter-zone traffic.
B. Configure the common zone to block intra-zone traffic.
C. Configure each tunnel interface to block intra-zone traffic.
D. Configure one of the tunnel interfaces in a different zone a set policies.
Answer: BD

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NO.29 What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trust-vr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

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NO.30 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate will not become active.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. The devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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