2013年11月1日星期五

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Exam Code: 1Z0-219
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-561
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle FLEXCUBE Universal Banking 11 Basic Implementation Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Oracle FLEXCUBE Branch Teller can perform multiple operations using the DD Teller screen. Which are
valid Teller DD operations?
A) DD issue against GL
B) DD issue against Walkin
C) DD liquidation against GL
D) DD sale against account
A. A,B and C
B. A, B, CandD
C. AandC
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which can be restricted for a facility?
A) Customers B) Branches C) Products D) Currencies
A. All
B. A, B and D
C. A, C and D
D. B, C and D
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which conventions is currency rounded?
A) Truncate
B) Round Up
C) Round Down
D) All the above
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.4 When is the "Year-end P/L Account" (specified at the Bank level) used.?
A. when a particular GL is closed
B. whenthe GL to which year-end balancesshould be posted is not specified inAccounts
C. when all year-end transactions pertaining to Memo GL are to be posted
D. when previous year adjustment entries are to be posted
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which definitions does Bank Parameter Maintenance allow?
A) Account Class Mask Definition
B) CIF Mask Definition
C) Product Mask Definition
D) GL Mask Definition
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. B and D
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements are true in regards to Change Class?
A) Different Association, Application and Liquidation events will be available.
B) Different Basic Amount Tags will be available.
C) Different Third-Party Types will be available.
D) Different User-Defined Fields will be available.
A. A. and B
B. C and D
C. A and D
D. B and D
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is true about Dormancy Days in Account Class?
A. MarkCustomer Account as Dormant as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and
credittransactions for the number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
B. Close Customer Account as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and credit
transactionsforthe number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
C. AutomaticallyTick No Debit and No Credit flag as part of EOD batch process if there areno debit are
credit transactions for thenumber of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
D. Mark the customer linked to the Customer Account as Dormant.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A bank has ICCF Rule implemented to collect its processing charges, but due to regulation changes
now it can no longer levy these charges on the transactions.
What changes are required in Oracle FLEXCUBE to implement new requirement?
A. Amend therespective products and select the "Stop Application" flag in the Charge Definition screen.
B. Unlock the ICCF Rule and delink all the attached products.
C. Reverse the ICCF Rule.
D. Delete the ICCF Rule.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which depreciation method does the depreciation amount specified by the bank on a fixed asset does
not remain constant throughout that asset s useful life?
A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Activity Depreciation Method
D. Sum of Digits Depreciation Method
Answer: D

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NO.10 An MM Borrowing contract has been created. The contract value date is 0l-Jan-2010 and maturity date
is 31-Mar-2010. The customer has approached the bank and requested for an extension of the contract
with a maturity date of 02-Apr-2010.
From which screen of the MM module, can the extension of this contract be performed?
A. MM Rollover screen
B. MM Contract Schedule screen
C. MM Value Dated Amendment screen
D. from all of these three screens
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1z0-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Comprehensive reference and Competitor management helps a sales organization to
increase sales velocity and sales productivity. Which is true regarding Oracle Fusion reference and
competitor management?
A. Enables a sales organization to track and manage activity threshold for a competitor.
B. Enables a sales organization to track revenue won to date, while using reference
C. Enables a sales organization to develop an end-to-end customer reference program from
reference
program development, enrolling, and managing reference.
D. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a competitor.
E. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a reference.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are asked to define lookup that provides the ability to define a reference set of values
based on a lookup code. Select the lookup type that you should choose for this scenario.
A. Standard lookup
B. Value Set
C. Set-Enabled lookup
D. Common lookup
E. Value-Enabled lookup
Answer: C

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NO.3 After adding a new product to a catalog, the product does not appear within the catalog.
Identity the three actions you would take to resolve the problem.
A. Verify theproduct's life-cycle phaseand see if the start and end dates are correct.
B. Check that the product is listed in the correct catalog.
C. Verify that the catalog is set as a Rollup Catalog.
D. Verify that the catalog is not a Template Catalog.
E. Verify that the catalog edits have been published.
F. Verify that the catalog contains at least one promotion template for the new product.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 You are configuring the Sales Assignment Manager based on resource candidates and credit
allocation candidates. In your company, resources change frequently but credit allocation is more
stable.
You a currently deciding how to set the Fusion cache values.
Select the true statement based on this scenario.
A. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Owner Objectlevel because resources change
frequently;the
Sales cache should be updated daily.
B. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Candidate Object level, but must be the same across all
levels; because resources change frequently, the cache should be updated daily.
C. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set on individual candidate objects; Resource should be set to dally
but
Credit Allocation might be set to weekly.
D. This scenario can't be accomplished because it is not possible to have multiple candidate objects
for
one owner object.
E. Oracle Fusion Objects are not cached; therefore no cache configuration is necessary.
Answer: C

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NO.5 After creating custom fields for opportunities, you are ready to import legacy data into the
Fusion
System. Which step is necessary before the opportunity data can be imported?
A. Navigate to the Application Composer and click the Generate button in the Import and Export,
section.
B. Navigate to the Application Composer. Select the Enable import / Export check box for each
custom
field in the Import / Export section.
C. Navigate to the Application Composer. Click the Refresh button in the Custom Objects section.
D. Navigate to the task:Manage Import / Export for Custom Fields. Click the Synchronize button.
E. No special configuration steps are necessary before legacy opportunity data is imported into
custom
fields.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A sales representative has closed revenue of amount X for a territory for the year 2011, and
amount Y for the same territory for the year 2009. Amount X is 122% of amount Y. The market
potential for the territory for the year 2012 is an additional 10%. Select the best rule to identify the
appropriate quota amount (110% of amount X) for the same sales rep for the territory for 2012.
A. percentage change in a measure over three name time periods
B. X% growth of a measure overthree year exponential moving average
C. weighted average of a measure over the past three years
D. Scale a measure from a past period by X%.
E. percentage change in a measure value over two named periods
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child territory quotas to
the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can create
active
territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the validation process in Oracle
Fusion
Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Identify the two correct statements regarding nonrevenue forecasts.
A. Multiple overlay resources cannot be forecast to the same primary deal.
B. Organizations have to explicitly enable the nonrevenue forecasting feature.
C. Nonrevenue forecast allows the same revenue to the forecast multiple times.
D. You cannot designate territories as forecastable for nonrevenue.
E. Nonrevenue forecast has no relationship with nonrevenue; quota goals set on the territory.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An organization is implementing close opportunity management functionality. Select three
profile options available to configure the close opportunity management process in Oracle Fusion
Sales.
A. Close Opportunity How Enabled
B. Close Opportunity Reference Enabled
C. Close Opportunity Win/Loss Enabled
D. Close Opportunity Competitor Enabled
E. Close Opportunity Status Enabled
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 When the opportunity import process was initially created, the Customer Data Management
Duplicatesfield was left blank. You are now using this process to import flat files; each flat file
contains 50 records.While reviewing the data, you happen to notice that the same opportunity is
included in two separate flat files, but the value of the Sales Stage field is different in the second file.
If you import both files, what will happen?
A. The second Import process will fail.
B. The second import process will succeed, but the duplicate opportunity record will fail.
C. The Fusion system will create a resolution request.
D. The Fusion system will create a duplicate record.
E. The Fusion system will update the opportunity record with the value from the second file.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Identify the metric that provides the sum of all weighted revenue values for all forecast items
in the
forecast period.
A. Quota metric
B. Expected Forecast metric
C. Estimated Adjustment metric
D. Pipeline metric
E. Closed Revenue metric
Answer: B

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NO.13 A company is, interested in assigning experienced and skilled sales representatives to their
key
Customers. Which two dimensions must be used for achieving this?
A. Geography
B. Account
C. Customer Size
D. Organization Type
E. Product
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 The sales manager in a company conducts product demos for customers frequently as part of
lead management. As part of his activity, the sales manager has two coordinate with different
departments in the company through emails to conduct the product demos effectively.
Coordination with other departments by emails is a time-consuming activity and requires multiple
follow ups. Choose the correct solution to automate these coordination activities.
A. UseAssessmentTemplates.
B. UseSalesMethods.
C. UseTaskTemplates.
D. UseResourcesGroups.
E. UseAssessmentTemplates andTaskTemplate.
Answer: E

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NO.15 A company has implemented Oracle Fusion Lead Management. The sales manager in the
company has asked the sales team to qualify leads for further follow ups with customers/prospects.
What are the three parameters that determine lead qualification?
A. approved budget
B. lead owner assigned
C. definite purchase timeline
D. Identified decision maker
E. ratings
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.16 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range of win
probability
and status.
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Identify three functions of the Activate Sales Quota Plan process.
A. creates territory and resource quota records
B. sends workflow notifications to territory owners and administrators
C. activates territory quota spread formula
D. synchronizes territory quota changes
E. sets the sales quota plan status to Active
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.19 There are four product lines in your sales organization. Each product has two subcategories.
Identify the product dimension attributes used for the definition of the territory structure.
A. Dimensions
B. Dimension Parameters
C. Dimension Members
D. Dimensions and Dimension Parameter
E. Dimensions, Dimension Parameters, and Dimension Members
Answer: C

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NO.20 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment mappings
involving
Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal review, your company decides to no
longer
base decisions on industry. Your supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations
from
the Fusion Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and selecting the
Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that already use Industry.
Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function; however no new
assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function, but the concept
of
Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a resolution request.
E. This can't be done; assignment objects can t be set to inactive if there is a mapping defined using
the
object
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1z0-507
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Payable Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Invoice Requiring Attention section of the invoice
Dashboard?
A. displays links to all prepayment type invoices that have NOT been fully applied
B. lists invoices entered or imported in the past seven days that are NOT yet accounted or
accounted for in draft only
C. displays Invoices in the system that are waiting for approval*
D. displays invoices rejected in the approval process along with the reason for rejection
E. displays all scanned invoices through the Integrated imaging solution that have NOT yet had
accounts Payables invoices created
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which three statements are true when a prepayment is applied to an invoice by selecting the
option Include on Invoice?
A. The prepayment amount available for application is reduced.
B. The unpaid invoice amount is reduced by the amount of the prepayment application.
C. The unpaid invoice amount is not affected by the prepayment application.
D. The invoice is updated to reflect the amount paid by prepayment in the Installments tab.
E. The prepayment amount paid is NOT updated In the Installment tab of invoice.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which statement is correct if the payment terms entered in the invoice differ from the
payment
terms on the purchase order?
A. The payment term of the purchase order overrides the invoice payment term.
B. The payment term of the invoice overrides the purchase order payment term.
C. The user needs to specify which payment term will be used.
D. The user needs to manually change the payment term on the invoice to make it the same as
the purchase order payment term.
E. The purchase order payment term can NOT be overridden.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the three sections in the Payables Key Indicators Report?
A. Recent Activity
B. Current Activity
C. Invoice Activity
D. Payment Activity
E. State of the Application
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which three options are used to sort the Unaccounted Transaction Report?
A. Transaction Type
B. Transaction Source
C. Transaction Currency
D. Transaction Number
E. Transaction Date
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 What is the invoice type of an unmatched Invoice created in the Supplier Portal?
A. Standard invoice request
B. Standard
C. Credit memo
D. Payment request
E. Credit memo invoice request
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two invoice actions are NOT allowed if prepayments have been applied to an invoice?
A. Cancel an invoice.
B. Reverse an invoice distribution.
C. Modify an invoice distribution.
D. Add an invoice line.
E. Modify the accounting information.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Identify three invoice options that can be configured on the Manage Invoice Options page for
Self-
Service Invoices.
A. Limit the invoice to single purchase order.
B. Require validation before approval.
C. Allow invoice backdating.
D. Allow unit price change for quantity based matches.
E. Requireinvoice grouping.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 1z0-599
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which
two
reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?
A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.
B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.
C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded
database, network appliance, or storage system.
D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 You deploy more than one application to the same WebLogic container. The security is set on
JavaEE level and all deployed JavaEE applications use the same security roles.
What is your recommendation for an architecture with those requirement
A. Combine all applications into a single one.
B. Define global roles on the WebLogic Domain level.
C. Use Ms Active Directory to keep the roles there.
D. Use Oracle Identity and Access Management solution to simplify the management.
E. Keep role mapping in the external WebLogic Role Mapped developed for that solution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When your WebLogic Server solution needs to be scaled out with additional capacity and you
don’t want to add additional hardware, which three techniques should you us?
A. Assign more than one managed server to a physical hardware that allows better CPU
utilization.
B. Assign more than one application to one managed server to better utilize threads within a single
JVM process.
C. Assign the same application to more than one managed server to load balance requests
between servers.
D. Assign the same heap size to the managed server across the cluster for easier control of
memory footprint
E. Create a virtualized environment with hypervisor for an easier solution
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 A customer needs to implement a Highly Available solution for JMS that has a primary data
center
and a backup. Which three steps would you perform when designing your solution?
A. Store Transaction Logs in a database and use Database stores for JMS to make replication
between sites easier.
B. Use file based Transaction Logs and JMS stores and implement a separate replication solution
for files in addition to database in case database replication fails.
C. Implement Oracle RAC at each site to provide a highly available solution within each
datacenter.
D. Configure Whole Server Migration to migrate WebLogic Managed Servers from the primary to
the secondary site.
E. Configure Automatic Service Migration for JMS high availability within a datacenter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their
customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?
A. Sessions can't be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider
redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.
B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production
mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.
C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can't be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying
application.
D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side
deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.
E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are
preserved without any extra settings.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multinode
Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide significant performance benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Answer: C

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NO.7 A highly available WebLogic cluster in UNIX is configured for automatic server migration. Node
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How should you simulate a managed server failure to test whether automatic server migration is
working?
A. Shut down the managed server from the WebLogic console.
B. Shut down the managed server using the WLST command through Node Manager.
C. Run "kill -9" once to kill the managed server process.
D. Run "kill -9" to kill the managed server process, and run "kill -9" one more time if the managed
server is restarting.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1z0-593
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two options are checked by the Oracle Universal Installer, when you first install Oracle
Software on a system?
A. if the OFA-compliant path is available
B. oraInst.loc should exist
C. that the user running the installation has permissions to write to the designated path
D. that you are running OUI as a DBA user
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A:
*When installing an OFA-compliant database using Oracle Universal Installer, ORACLE_BASE is
set to /pm/app/oracle by default.
*All Oracle products on CD-ROM are OFA-compliant; that is, Oracle Universal Installer places
Oracle products in directory locations that follow OFA guidelines
B: Every Oracle software installation has an associated Central Inventory where the details of all the
Oracle products installed on a host are registered. The Central Inventory is located in thedirectory
that the inventory pointer file specifies. Each Oracle software installation has its own Central
Inventory pointer file that is unknown to another Oracle software installation.
Default Inventory Pointer File Locations
PlatformDefault Inventory Pointer Location Linux LinuxPPC /etc/oraInst.loc AIX /etc/oraInst.loc
Solaris SPARC HPUX-IA64 HPUX-PARISC /var/opt/oracle/oraInst.loc Windows Windows.X64
Windows.IA64 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/Software/Oracle/inst.loc

NO.2 Which command lists all the service-related information for the specified service? (crmdb is
the cluster database name and crms is the service name)
A. #crsctl config services -d cmdb -s crms
B. #srvctlconfig service -d cmdb -s crms
C. #srvctl getenv service -d crmdb -s crms
D. #crsctl status service -d crm -s crm -v
Answer: B

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Explanation:
*The srvctl config command displays the Oracle Restart configuration of the specified component or
set of components.
*srvctl config service For the specified database, displays the Oracle Restart configuration
information for the specified database service or for all database services
Incorrect: Not C: getenv
Gets and displays environment variables and their values from the Oracle Restart configuration for a
database, listener, or Oracle ASM instance.
srvctl getenv Summary
CommandDescription
*srvctl getenv asm Displays the configured environment variables for the Oracle ASM instance
*srvctl getenv database Displays the configured environment variables for the specified database
instance
*srvctl getenv listener Displays the configuredenvironment variables for the specified listener
Reference:SRVCTL Command Reference for Oracle Restart

NO.3 Which of these is not recommended as the basis for an ASM disk in a shared storage
configuration?
A. Raw disk partition
B. NFS file
C. Raw logical volumes
D. iSCSI targets
Answer: A

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Explanation:
*Block or raw devices are not supported by Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) or Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA). However, manually configured raw or block devices are supported
by Oracle, but not recommended.
* Shared disk access requires some sort of networked storage
-
iSCSI (not D)
-
Fibre Channel/SCSI
-
NFS (not B)
*A logical volume issupported in less complicated configurations where a logical volume is mapped
to a LUN, or a logical volume uses disks or raw partitions.

NO.4 Choose two options that are not suitable for shared storage in a RAC 11g Release 2 database
created using DBCA.
A. Block device
B. Raw device
C. ASM
D. CFS
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
Before you use DBCA to convert a single-instance database to an Oracle RAC or an
Oracle RAC One Node database, ensure that your system meets the following conditions:
/ It is a supported hardware and operating system software configuration.
/ It has shared storage: either Oracle Cluster File System (CFS) (not D) or Oracle ASM (not C) is
available and accessible from all nodes. On Linux on POWER systems, ensure that GPFS is
available and accessible from all nodes.
/ Your applications have no design characteristics that preclude their use with cluster database
processing.
Note:
*DBCA (Database Configuration Assistant) is a utility used for creating, configuring and removing
Oracle Databases.
Reference:Creating Oracle Real Application Clusters Databases with Database Configuration
Assistant
Reference:Converting to Oracle RAC and Oracle RAC One Node with DBCA

NO.5 You are creating an Oracle Cluster database using DBCA. The "Memory size (SGA and PGA)"
field is supplied on value of 2000 MB. The default Block used for the database is __________.
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 8 KB
D. 16 KB
E. 32 KB
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Note: *In the Block Size list, enter the size in bytes or accept the default. Oracle Database data is
stored in these blocks. One data block corresponds to a specific number of bytes of physical space
on disk. While using pre-defined templates, this field is not enabled since the database will be
created with the default block size of 8 KB. But while using the custom option, you can change block
size. Selecting a block size other than the default 8 KB value requires advanced knowledge and
should only be done when absolutely required.

NO.6 Select two Clusterware administration tasks that must be performed as the root user.
A. List the location of the voting disks.
B. Check the health and viability of the Clusterware on all nodes.
C. Disable the Clusterware from automatic start at node reboot.
D. Start the Clusterware manually on one node.
E. Check the health of the Clusterware on one node.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
A:Voting disk management requires a valid and working OCR. Before you add, delete, replace, or
restore voting disks, run the ocrcheck command as root.
D: Example:
Restart the Oracle Clusterware stack in normal mode as root:
# crsctl start crs

NO.7 Once OUI recognizes a set of nodes in a cluster, which three choices does it offer when
installing the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 software?
A. You can only install the Oracle Database with the RAC option on selected nodes.
B. OUI forcesyouto configure ASM for shared storage before proceeding.
C. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on all the nodes.
D. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on selected nodes.
E. You can install Oracle RAC One Node.
Answer: B,D,E

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Explanation:
B, D: Complete the prerequisite tasks for converting to an Oracle RAC database:
Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Database software is installed on all target nodes.
Oracle Clusterware is started.
(D)The Oracle Database binary is enabled for Oracle RAC on all target nodes.
(B) Shared storage is configured and accessible from all nodes.
User equivalency is configured for the operating system user performing the conversion.
Enterprise Manager agents are configured and running on all nodes, and are configured with the
cluster and host information.
The database being converted has been backed up successfully.
E:Installing Oracle RAC One Node is available starting with Oracle Database 11g Release 2
(11.2.0.2).
Note:
*By default, the standard Oracle Database 11g software installation process installs the Oracle
RAC option when OUI recognizes that you are performing the installation on a cluster.

NO.8 Which step will you have to perform on Windows to restore the OCR that you did not do on
Linux?
A. Identify existing backups with the -backup option
B. Use the Service Control Panel to stop services
C. Review the contents of the backup with the ocrdump command
D. Make sure that the restored OCR files are valid
Answer: B

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Explanation:
See step 2) below. Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on Windows-Based Systems
Use the following procedure to restore the OCR on Windows-based systems:
cluvfy comp ocr -n all [-verbose]
Note:
Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on UNIX-Based SystemsUse the following procedure to
restore the OCR on UNIX-based systems:
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Note:
Prior to running the crsctl start crs command in step 4, run the following command to verify that all
processes except init.cssd fatal are inactive:
ps -ef|grep cssd
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Reference: Oracle Database Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Real Application Clusters
Administration and Deployment Guide

NO.9 Which two actions do you need to take in Oracle Grid Infrastructure 11g Release 2 to enable
debugging for the resource ora.docrac.vip?
A. Make sure you are logged in as a privileged user.
B. crsctldebug res ora.docrac1.vip:1
C. crsctlset log res ora.docrac1.vip:1
D. crsctldebug log res ora.docrac1.vip:0
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A:You can use crsctl commands as the root user to enable dynamic debugging for the Oracle
Clusterware Cluster Ready Services (CRS), Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR), Cluster Synchronization
Services (CSS), and the Event Manager (EVM).
C: You can enable debugging for the CRS, OCR, CSS, and EVM modules and their components by
setting environment variables or by issuing crsctl debug commands using the following syntax:
crsctl debug log module_name component:debugging_level
Reference: Oracle Clusterware Administration and Deployment Guide,Component Level Debugging

NO.10 The Oracle Cluster Health Monitor can't _________.
A. Detect and analyze OS and duster resource for problems in Oracle Clusterware and RAC cluster
B. Track OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level continuously
C. Be installed on Windows Server 20O3 SP1
D. Collect and analyze the cluster-wide data
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Oracle Cluster Health Monitoris designed to detect and analyze operating system (OS) and
cluster resource related degradation and failures in order to bring more explanatory power to many
issues that occur in clusters where Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC are running such as node
eviction. It continuously tracks the OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level.
It collects and analyzes this cluster-wide data. In real time mode, when thresholds are hit, an alert is
shown to the operator. For root cause analysis, historical data can be replayed to understand what
was happening at the time of failure.

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Exam Code: 1Z1-478
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.2 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.4 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.5 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.6 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.7 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.8 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.9 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

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