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2014年1月16日星期四

The Best Oracle 1Z0-852 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 1Z0-852
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 System.out.print(b.FOO);

NO.2 public static final String FOO = "foo";

NO.3 Building build2 = (Building) barn1;

NO.4 System.out.print(Sub.FOO);

NO.5 System.out.print(((Base)s).FOO);

NO.6 class C extends B { void c1() { } }
and:
A x = new B(); C y = new C(); A z = new C();
What are four valid examples of polymorphic method calls? (Choose four.)
A. x.a2();
B. z.a2();
C. z.c1();
D. z.a1();
E. y.c1();
F. x.a1();
Answer: A,B,D,F

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5.A company that makes Computer Assisted Design (CAD) software has, within its application, some
utility classes that are used to perform 3D rendering tasks. The company's chief scientist has just
improved the performance of one of the utility classes' key rendering algorithms, and has assigned a
programmer to replace the old algorithm with the new algorithm. When the programmer begins
researching the utility classes, she is happy to discover that the algorithm to be replaced exists in only one
class. The programmer reviews that class's API, and replaces the old algorithm with the new algorithm,
being careful that her changes adhere strictly to the class's API. Once testing has begun, the programmer
discovers that other classes that use the class she
changed are no longer working properly. What design flaw is most likely the cause of these new bugs?
A. Inheritance
B. Tight coupling
C. Low cohesion
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B

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6.Given:
11. class Mammal { }
12.
13. class Raccoon extends Mammal {
14. Mammal m = new Mammal();
15. }
16.
17. class BabyRaccoon extends Mammal { }
Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. Raccoon is-a Mammal.
B. Raccoon has-a Mammal.
C. BabyRaccoon is-a Mammal.
D. BabyRaccoon is-a Raccoon.
E. BabyRaccoon has-a Mammal.
F. BabyRaccoon is-a BabyRaccoon.
Answer: A,B,C,F

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7.Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. } 6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A,B,E,F

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8.Given that:
Gadget has-a Sprocket and
Gadget has-a Spring and
Gadget is-a Widget and
Widget has-a Sprocket
Which two code fragments represent these relationships? (Choose two.)
A. class Widget { Sprocket s; }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s; }
B. class Widget { }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
C. class Widget { Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
class Gadget extends Widget { }
D. class Gadget { Spring s; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s; }
E. class Gadget { }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
F. class Gadget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ }
Answer: A,C

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9.Given the following six method names:
addListener
addMouseListener
setMouseListener
deleteMouseListener
removeMouseListener
registerMouseListener
How many of these method names follow JavaBean Listener naming rules?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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10.Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Compilation fails.
B. The code compiles and the output is 2.
C. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, compilation would fail.
D. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, compilation would fail.
E. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be2.
F. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 1.
Answer: B,E,F

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11.Given:
1. class Alligator {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. int []x[] = {{1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8,9}};
4. int [][]y = x;
5. System.out.println(y[2][1]);
6. }
7. }
What is the result?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
F. Compilation fails.
Answer: E

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12.Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + " ");
15. }
What is the result?
A. 1 2 3
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A

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13.Given:
11. public interface A { public void m1(); }
12.
13. class B implements A { }
14. class C implements A { public void m1() { } }
15. class D implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
16. abstract class E implements A { }
17. abstract class F implements A { public void m1() { } }
18. abstract class G implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. Exactly one class does NOT compile.
C. Exactly two classes do NOT compile.
D. Exactly four classes do NOT compile.
E. Exactly three classes do NOT compile.
Answer: C

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14.Given:
21. abstract class C1 {
22. public C1() { System.out.print(1); }
23. }
24. class C2 extends C1 {
25. public C2() { System.out.print(2); }
26. }
27. class C3 extends C2 {
28. public C3() { System.out.println(3); }
29. }
30. public class Ctest {
31. public static void main(String[] a) { new C3(); }
32. }
What is the result?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 32
D. 123
E. 321
F. Compilation fails.
G. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

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15.Given:
1. public class A {
2. public void doit() {
3. }
4. public String doit() {
5. return "a";
6. }
7. public double doit(int x) {
8. return 1.0;
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
D. Compilation succeeds and no runtime errors with class A occur.
Answer: C

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NO.7 }

NO.8 Base b = new Base();

NO.9 class Sub extends Base {public static final String FOO="bar";}
What is the result?
A. foofoofoofoofoo
B. foobarfoobarbar
C. foobarfoofoofoo
D. foobarfoobarfoo
E. barbarbarbarbar
F. foofoofoobarbar
G. foofoofoobarfoo
Answer: D

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2.A company has a business application that provides its users with many different reports: receivables
reports, payables reports, revenue projects, and so on. The company has just
purchased some new, state-of-the-art, wireless printers, and a programmer has been assigned the task of
enhancing all of the reports to use not only the company's old printers, but the new wireless printers as
well. When the programmer starts looking into the application, the programmer discovers that because of
the design of the application, it is necessary to make changes to eachreport to support the new printers.
Which two design concepts most likely explain this situation.? (Choose two.)
A. Inheritance
B. Low cohesion
C. Tight coupling
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B,C

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3.Given:
5. class Building { }
6. public class Barn extends Building {
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Building build1 = new Building();
9. Barn barn1 = new Barn();
10. Barn barn2 = (Barn) build1;
11. Object obj1 = (Object) build1;
12. String str1 = (String) build1;

NO.10 Given:
1. public class Base {

NO.11 Sub s = new Sub();

NO.12 }

NO.13 System.out.print(Base.FOO);

NO.14 void a2() { }

NO.15 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.16 System.out.print(s.FOO);

NO.17 } }

NO.18 }
Which is true?
A. If line 10 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
B. If line 11 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
C. If line 12 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
D. If line 13 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
E. More than one line must be removed for compilation to succeed.
Answer: C

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4.Given:
10. abstract class A {
11. abstract void a1();
12. void a2() { }
13. }
14. class B extends A {
15. void a1() { }

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Latest training guide for Oracle 1Z0-864

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Exam Code: 1Z0-864
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 238 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.2 A new security feature has been requested for an existing web application with the following
requirements:
All requests must be logged to a secure database.
Each request must be time-stamped with the start and completion times.
Each request must contain the IP address of the client that made the request. Which pattern is most
applicable for this new feature?
A. Strategy
B. Front Controller
C. Abstract Factory
D. Intercepting Filter
E. Model View Controller
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company has a web service that provides the most recent price for stocks, mutual funds, and
commodities. The company has the only web service that allows a person to check prices on all three
financial assets with one call. Its system does not store this information but sends individual calls to each
of the primary vendors for an asset and then aggregates the response to the requester. The company has
committed to support a non-functional requirement (NFR) for performance that states it must process all
requests within three seconds and each of the three vendors is obligated to support the NFR as dictated
by the company. Where, in the message flow, is it appropriate to measure whether all the NFRs are met?
A. when a request is received and a response is sent to the requester
B. when a request is received, first call to vendor, last response from vendors, response is sent to a
requester
C. when a requester sends a request, the request is received, each call to vendor, each
response from vendor, requester receives response
D. when a request is received, each call to vendor, each response from a vendor, a response is sent to a
requester
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two capabilities of the Abstract Factory pattern? (Choose two.)
A. Creates whole-part hierarchies
B. Creates families of related objects
C. Enforces dependencies between concrete classes
D. Specifies the types of objects to create using a sample instance
E. Separates the construction of a complex object from its representation
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Your new architecture needs to access the business logic of an Enterprise Information Solution (EIS).
What are three benefits of using the Java Connector Architecture to connect to EIS instead of
implementing a proprietary solution? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Performance
C. Loose coupling
D. Connection pooling
E. Common Client Interface
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A Java web component, EJB component, or another web service can be a client to a web service.
Which Java API can the client use to access the web service through a Service Endpoint Interface?
A. JAXB
B. JAXR
C. JDBC
D. JAX-WS
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three are parts of a SOAP message? (Choose three.)
A. SOAP body
B. SOAP endpoint
C. SOAP headers
D. SOAP handlers
E. SOAP attachments
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 What are two benefits of using the Value List Handler pattern? (Choose two.)
A. Improves network performance
B. Facilitates exposing existing services
C. Provides an alternative to potentially inefficient EJB finders
D. Facilitates post-processing across heterogeneous requests
E. Provides a mechanism to support shared elements of composite views
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 What is an advantage of XML over HTTP, as compared to SOAP over HTTP, for web services?
A. Guaranteed delivery
B. More security options
C. Smaller message size
D. Strongly typed parameters
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)
A. Broker
B. Facade
C. Provider
D. Decorator
E. Requestor
F. Interceptor
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements: Users access the system
over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order. Users must log in and are validated using
LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.12 A developer creates a Java web service to be used by consumers in an SOA. This SOA uses a UDDI
service registry. How can the developer make the new service available to consumers?
A. Deploy to the registry using JAXR
B. Publish to the registry using JAXR
C. Query the registry using JAX-RPC
D. Target the registry using JAX-RPC
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are integrating with a single legacy Enterprise Information System. You are interested in the
transaction management capabilities of the Java Connector Architecture. This new system needs the
capability to invoke multiple operations against this single legacy system. These operations succeed
together or fail together as a group. To which minimum level of transaction management are you going to
set your resource adapter?
A. No transaction
B. Local transaction
C. Distributed transaction
D. Container Managed transaction
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are writing a utility that searches for existing web services provided by large companies through
UDDI. Your web site allows the user to input search criteria using event-driven, state managed GUI
screens, performs the search, and displays them in a formatted HTML page. Which technologies would
you use for this application?
A. JSP and JAXB
B. JSF and JAXR
C. JSF and JAX-WS
D. JSP and JAX-WS
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your web application requires access to several different services, so you created a Service Locator
class to be used by the UI developers on the team. New services with different interfaces are occasionally
added. Unfortunately, the caching benefits of the Service Locator class are NOT being realized because a
new instance of this class is being created in every backing bean method that requires a service. Which
pattern should you apply to eliminate this problem?
A. Bridge
B. Singleton
C. Prototype
D. Factory Method
E. Business Delegate
Answer: B

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NO.16 A teenage fashion web site, includes a set of pages for displaying and browsing their catalog, as well
as pages for making fashion suggestions that also display tables of catalog entries.
Currently, the JSP code uses scriptlets that perform database SELECT statements and format the results
in HTML tables. You have been hired to help reduce the maintenance overhead when either the look is
modified or the database schema changes. Which two patterns, used together, do you apply to reduce
this maintenance overhead? (Choose two.)
A. View Helper
B. Front Controller
C. Composite View
D. Data Access Object
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 An online sporting goods store's web application uses HTTPSession to store shopping carts.
When the application is initially deployed, the business plan predicts only a few customers will access the
site. Over time, the store projects a steady increase in volume. The deployment plan calls for a single web
container in the initial deployment. As demand increases, the plan calls for multiple web containers on
separate hardware with clustered HTTPSession objects. Which two principles will help the application
meet the requirements and optimize performance? (Choose two.)
A. The application should store as much as possible in HTTPSession objects.
B. The application should NOT make frequent updates to HTTPSession objects.
C. The application should make coarse-grained updates to HTTPSession objects.
D. The application should create new HTTPSession objects instead of updating existing objects.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 An application needs to invoke a service on a remote system over a low latency connection, and then
wait for a response. Which two are best for this type of invocation? (Choose two.)
A. JMS topic
B. JMS queue
C. RMI over IIOP
D. synchronous web service
E. asynchronous web service
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of
the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead
architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent
objects. You have done this to maximize performance when navigating through the model. Why does JPA
offer better performance for this task.?
A. JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.
B. JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.
C. JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.
D. The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.
Answer: B

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NO.20 With the release of a new product line, there has been a significant increase in the volume of
transactions on your web site. You need to scale your application and manage session failover. What is
the best option for scalability?
A. Add additional web servers and application servers
B. Introduce a High Availability pair and utilize sticky sessions
C. Add additional application servers and implement DNS round robin
D. Add additional application servers and use clustered HttpSession
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-881
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Security Administrator Certified Expert Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 293 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 A new security related patch has been released for the Solaris OS. This patch needs to be applied
to the system that functions as your web server. The web server is configured to run in a non-
global zone. Can you just use patch add to apply the patch to the global zone to update the web
server zone?
A. No, you need to shut down the web server zone first.
B. Yes, patches will be automatically applied to all zones.
C. No, you need to apply the patch to the web server zone separately.
D. Yes, but you must make sure that the web server zone is booted first.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An Internet service provider is offering shell accounts on their systems. As a special service,
customers can also apply for a root account to get their own virtual machine. The provider has
implemented this by using zones, and the customers get root access to the non-global zone. One of their
customers is developing cryptographic software and is using the ISP machine for testing newly developed
Solaris crypto providers. What kind of testing is available to this developer?
A. The developer is able to test newly developed user-level providers.
B. The developer is able to test newly developed kernel software providers.
C. The developer can NOT test newly developed providers in a non-global zone.
D. The developer is able to do the same tests as if developing as root in the global zone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Packet filters and firewalls are an important component of any defense-in-depth security strategy.
Which two types of threats can IP Filter be deployed as an effective countermeasure against? (Choose
two.)
A. a Christmas Tree scan
B. an attempt to log in to a system using SSH by an unauthorized user
C. an attempt to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability in a web storefront application
D. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an authorized
network
E. an attempt to exploit a buffer overflow vulnerability in rpcbind, originating from a host on an
unauthorized network
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which are two advantages of the Service Management Facility compared to the init.d startup scripts?
(Choose two.)
A. It restarts processes if they die.
B. It handles service dependencies.
C. It has methods to start and stop the service.
D. It specifies what the system should do at each run level.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 A security administrator is required to validate the integrity of a set of operating system files on a
number of Solaris systems. The administrator decides to use the Solaris Fingerprint Database to validate
configuration and data files as well as binaries and libraries. What command, available by default in
Solaris 10, will help the security administrator collect the necessary information that will be used with the
Solaris Fingerprint Database?
A. md5sum
B. digest
C. encrypt
D. elfsign
E. cryptoadm
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You maintain a minimized and hardened web server. The exhibit shows the current credentials that the
web server runs with. You receive a complaint about the fact that a newly installed webbased application
does not function. This application is based on a /bin/ksh cgi-bin script.
What setting prevents this cgi-bin program from working?
A. The system might NOT have /bin/ksh installed.
B. The server is NOT allowed to call the exec system call.
C. The server should run with uid=0 to run cgi-bin scripts.
D. Some of the libraries needed by /bin/ksh are NOT present in the webserver's chroot
environment.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A security administrator is required to periodically validate binaries against the Solaris Fingerprint
Database. While attempting to capture MD5 file signatures for key Solaris OS files, the security
administrator encounters the following error: digest: no cryptographic provider was found for this
algorithm -- md5 What command should the administrator use to help determine the cause of the
problem?
A. crypt
B. digest
C. kcfadm
D. openssl
E. cryptoadm
Answer: E

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NO.8 Solaris Auditing supports the selective logging of which two kinds of events? (Choose two.)
A. file access by selected users
B. access to selected files by all users
C. selected users making outbound network connections
D. password changes which do not meet the system password policy
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two tasks does the Key Distribution Center (KDC) perform? (Choose two.)
A. issues service tickets
B. authenticates services
C. issues ticket-granting-tickets
D. validates passwords sent in clear text
E. provides private sessions to services
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 You are configuring a new system to be used as an intranet web server. After you have installed the
minimal amount of packages and patched the system, you added the appropriate web server packages
(SUNWapch2r and SUNWapch2u). By default, the web server daemon will be started using UID
webservd and the basic privilege set. To comply with the company's policy of least privilege, you need to
minimize the privileges that the web server will have. What will you modify to specify the privileges that
the web service will run with?
A. the PRIV_DEFAULT setting in /etc/security/policy.conf
B. the defaultpriv setting of webserverd in /etc/user_attr
C. the privileges property of the web service in the SMF repository
D. the privs property of the web service in /etc/security/exec_attr
Answer: C

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NO.11 After a recent audit, you have been requested to minimize an existing Solaris system which runs a third
party database application. Which two should you do before starting to minimize the system? (Choose
two.)
A. Back up the system.
B. Remove any unneeded patches.
C. Install the SUNWrnet metacluster.
D. Remove any unneeded packages.
E. Confirm with the vendor of the database software that they support minimization.
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 You decided it was worth maintaining an extremely paranoid policy when configuring your firewall
rules. Therefore, you had your management approve the implementation of a security policy
stance to deny all inbound connection requests to your corporate network. How is it possible that
you still suffer from remote exploits that your adversaries are using to obtain interactive sessions
inside your firewall?
A. TCP splicing is easy to do.
B. Internal software may be vulnerable.
C. UDP vulnerabilities are well-known and exploited.
D. ICMP hijacking attacks can still succeed through any firewall.
Answer: B

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NO.13 One of the operators of the mainframe group was moved to the UNIX group and tasked to activate and
configure password history. For every user, the last 10 passwords should be remembered in the history. In
what file is the size of the password history configured?
A. /etc/shadow
B. /etc/pam.conf
C. /etc/default/passwd
D. /etc/security/policy.conf
Answer: C

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NO.14 Due to changes to the security policy of your organization, access restriction must be applied to
systems. The changes specify that access to systems through the ftp protocol is NOT allowed according
to the Human Resources department, which has the 10.10.10.0/24 address space assigned. TCP
wrappers have been enabled for the ftp daemon, and these files have been configured: # cat
/etc/hosts.allow in.ftpd: ALL # cat /etc/hosts.deny in.ftpd: 10.10.10.0/24 Despite the implemented
configuration, Human Resources is still able to access systems through the ftp protocol. What action must
be taken?
A. The ftp daemon must be restarted.
B. The inetd daemon must be restarted.
C. The entry in the hosts.deny file is wrong and must be changed.
D. The entry in the hosts.allow file is wrong and must be changed.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two commands are part of Sun Update Connection? (Choose two.)
A. /usr/bin/pkgadm
B. /usr/bin/keytool
C. /usr/sbin/smpatch
D. /usr/sbin/patchadd
E. /usr/bin/updatemanager
Answer: C,E

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NO.16 You have been asked to implement defense in depth for network access to a system, where a web
server will be running on an Internet-facing network interface. Which is NOT contributing to the defense in
depth?
A. running the web server in a zone
B. using svcadm to disable unused services
C. using IP Filter to limit which network ports can be accessed from the Internet
D. using VLANs on a single network interface instead of using multiple network interfaces
E. using TCP wrappers to limit from which system SSH be used to connect to the system
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Key Distribution Center (KDC) is a central part of the Kerberos authentication system. How should
the system running the KDC be configured?
A. It should be a hardened, minimized system.
B. It should be a hardened, non-networked system.
C. The KDC implementation employs cryptography and can therefore run securely on an ordinary
multi-user system.
D. For improved security, users must log in to the KDC before authenticating themselves, so it must be a
multiuser system.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given:
jupiter:$md5,rounds=2006$2amXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.:12210:::::: What is the
characteristic of this /etc/shadow entry?
A. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with salt 2006$2amXesSj5$, and with the encrypted password
$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
B. User jupiter uses the 2a hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
C. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with salt 2amXesSj5, and with the
encrypted password kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
D. User jupiter uses the md5 hash, with 2006 iterations of the hash, with no salt, and with the encrypted
password $rQmXesSj5$$kCF48vfPsHDjlKNXeEw7V.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have been asked to grant the user ennovy, a member of the staff group, read and write access to
the file /app/notes which has the following properties: ls -l /app/notes -rw-rw---- 1 root app 0 Jun 6 15:11
/app/notes Which options will NOT grant the user the ability to read and write the file?
A. usermod -G app ennovy
B. setfacl -m user:ennovy:rw- /app/notes
C. setfacl -m group:staff:rw- /app/notes
D. usermod -K defaultpriv=basic,file_dac_read,file_dac_write ennovy
Answer: D

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NO.20 The company security policy now requires very detailed auditing of all actions. This includes capturing
all executed commands together with their arguments and the environment variables.
After activating auditing on all Solaris 10 systems, the security auditor complains about having to check
the audit trail on each individual host. He asks for a central place to capture all audit trails.
Using standard Solaris 10 security features, which is a solution to this problem.?
A. Configure auditd to send email with the events.
B. Configure auditd to send the output using syslog to a central loghost.
C. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using NFS on a central server.
D. Configure auditd to store the audit trail using LDAP in a central directory.
Answer: C

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NO.21 A cryptographically signed patch provides system administrators with assurance that the patch
possesses certain qualities. Which two qualities are assured when a patch signature is verified? (Choose
two.)
A. The patch has a verified origin.
B. The patch has NOT been modified since it was signed.
C. The patch was created by a Sun Certified Systems Engineer.
D. The contents of the patch have NOT been revealed to anyone who does NOT have a Sun service plan.
Answer: A,B

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NO.22 A security administator has a requirement to make an encrypted backup copy of an application and its
data, using the AES algorithm, so that it can be safely transmitted to a partner. Which two command
sequences can be used to generate an encrypted backup of the files under /app1? (Choose two.)
A. crypt < /app1/* > app1.backup.aes
B. encrypt -a aes -d /app1 -o app1.backup.aes
C. tar cf - /app1 | gzip -d -e aes > app1.backup.aes
D. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ crypt -a aes > app1.backup.aes
E. ufsdump 0f - /app1 |\ encrypt -a aes -o app1.backup.aes
F. tar cf - /app1 |\ openssl enc -out app1.backup.aes -aes-128-cbc
Answer: E,F

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NO.23 A security administrator has a requirement to deploy the Solaris Security Toolkit onto all Solaris servers
in the department. In this environment, there are a variety of platforms and operating system versions
deployed. Onto which two platforms and operating system combinations can the Solaris Security Toolkit
be deployed in a supported configuration? (Choose two.)
A. x86, Solaris 2.4
B. x64, Solaris 9
C. x86, Solaris 10
D. SPARC, Solaris 2.6
E. SPARC, Solaris 8
Answer: C,E

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NO.24 Within the context of file integrity, rules can be implemented to change the scope of the Basic Audit
and Report Tool (BART) manifest. Given the rule file: /home/bert/docs *.og[dt] CHECK all IGNORE mtime
Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. All files on the system will be checked.
B. The last modification time of all checked files will not be checked.
C. Key words such as CHECK and IGNORE can NOT be used in a rule file.
D. Only files with extension .ogt and .ogd in the directory /home/bert/docs will be checked.
E. All files on the system will be checked, except for files with extensions .ogt and .ogd in the directory
/home/bert/docs.
Answer: B,D

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NO.25 To harden a newly installed Solaris OS, an administrator is required to make sure that syslogd is
configured to NOT accept messages from the network. Which supported method can be used to
configure syslogd like this?
A. Run svcadm disable -t svc:/network/system-log.
B. Edit /etc/default/syslogd to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
C. Edit /etc/rc2.d/S74syslog to start syslogd with the -t option.
D. Edit /lib/svc/method/system-log to set LOG_FROM_REMOTE=NO.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Your company is running a DNS test server on the internal network. Access to this server must be
blocked by using IP Filter. The administrator prefers that this access control is not obvious to someone
trying to contact the server from the outside. Which rule implements the access control but hides the use
of IP Filter to the outside?
A. pass in quick on eri0 from 192.168.0.0/24 to any
B. block in quick proto udp from any to any port = 53
C. pass out quick on eri0 proto icmp from 192.168.1.2 to any keep state
D. block return-icmp(port-unr) in proto udp from any to 192.168.1.2 port = 53
Answer: D

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NO.27 A security administrator creates a directory called prevoy with the following access control policy:
$ getfacl prevoy # file: prevoy # owner:
secadm # group: secadm user::rwx group::r-x #effective:r-x mask:r-x other:r-x default:user::r-default:
user:
sysadm:rw- default:group::r-- default:group:sysadm:rw- default:mask:rwx default:other:--- Into this
directory, the security administrator creates a file called secrets. The ls command reports the following for
the prevoy directory and secrets file: $ ls -ld . secrets drwxr-xr-x+ 2 secadm secadm 512 Jun 6 16:38 .
-r--r-----+ 1 secadm secadm
0 Jun 6 16:38 secrets Which two actions can be successfully taken by the sysadm role? (Choose two.)
A. The sysadm role can read the secrets file.
B. The sysadm role can write to the secrets file.
C. The sysadm role can remove the secrets file.
D. The sysadm role can create new files under the prevoy directory.
E. The sysadm role can change the Access Control Lists of the prevoy directory.
Answer: A,B

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NO.28 The /etc/default/passwd file contains a number of configuration parameters that can be used to
constrain the character composition of user passwords. What is one of the dangers of having password
composition too tightly constrained?
A. Password complexity rules apply only to the English alphabet.
B. The entropy of the resulting password strings will be very high.
C. Duplication of encrypted user password strings is much more likely.
D. Limited password value possibilities can simplify brute force attacks.
E. Passwords are harder to compute when using many character classes.
Answer: D

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NO.29 A security administrator has a requirement to help configure and deploy a new server. What are two
security tasks that the security administrator should perform? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the server to use LDAP for authentication.
B. Configure network interfaces and routing information.
C. Install a DTrace probe to capture the use of privileges.
D. Disable any network services that are NOT being used.
E. Apply software patches to correct security vulnerabilities.
Answer: D,E

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NO.30 Which option is used in /etc/vfstab to limit the size of a tmpfs file system to 512MB to prevent a
memory denial of service (DoS)?
A. size=512m
B. maxsize=512
C. minsize=512
D. swapfs=512mb
Answer: A

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NO.1 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

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NO.2 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

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NO.3 ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for
JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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NO.5 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

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NO.10 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-219
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-820
Exam Name: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 You need to update an OS image on a client. The pkg publishers command displays the wrong
publisher with the wrong update: PUBLISHERTYPESTATUSURI Solaris origin
onlinehttp://pkg.oracle.com/solaris/release
The update is available on the updated publisher: PUBLISHERTYPESTATUSURI Solaris
originonlinehttp://sysA.example.com
Select the option that describes the procedure used to update the OS image on the system from the
updated publisher.
A. Copy the repository from the ISO image onto the local client.
Configure the repository on the client by using the svccfg-s command so that the Solaris publisher is
connected to the new repository.
Refresh the application/pkg/server service.
Issue the pkgrepo refresh command to refresh the repository catalog
B. Configure the publisher on the client using the svcfg-s command so that the Solaris publisher is
connected to the repository at http://sysA.example.com
Refresh the application/pkg/server service.
Issuethe pkgrepo refresh command to repository catalog
C. Use the pkg set-publisher command to change the URL of the publisher Solaris to
http://sysA.example.com.
Issue the pkg update command to update the OS image.
D. Add the new publisher http://sysA.example.com Solaris
Use the pkg set-publisher command to set the publisher search order and place
http://sysA.example.com of http://pkg.oracle.com/solaris/release
Issue the pkg publisher command to view the publishers.
Set the new publisher to sticky.
Issue the pkg update command to update the OS image.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have already generated a 256-bit AES raw key and named the keystore file /mykey. You need to
use the key to create an encrypted file system.
Which command should you use to create a ZFS encrypted file system named pool1/encrypt using the
/mykey keystore?
A. zfs create-oencryption = /mykey pool1/encrypt
B. zfs create-oencryption = 256-ccm-okeysource = raw, file : ///my key pool1/encrypt
C. zfs create-oencryption = AES keysource = /mykey pool1/encrypt
D. zfs create-oencryption = on keystore = /mykey pool1/encrypt
Answer: B

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NO.3 Review the zonestat command:
zonestate -q physical -memory -R high -z -p -p zones
10 24h 60m
Select the option that correctly describes the information that is displayed by this command.
A. It is a sample of dbzone s physical memory usage taken every hour over a 24-hour period.
Only the top 10 samplings of peak memory usage are displayed.
All other utilization data is eliminated.
B. It is a sample of dbzone s CPU, virtual memory, and networking utilization.
Physical memory is executed from the report.
The sampling is taken every 10 minutes over a 24-hour period and peak utilization id displayed
each hour.
C. It is a sample of dbzone s CPU, virtual memory, and networking utilization.
Physical memory is executed from the report.
The sampling is taken every 10 minutes over a 24-hour period and displayed each hour.
D. It is a sample of dbzone s physical memory usage taken every 10 seconds and 24-hour period.
Only peak virtual memory usage and CPU utilization are displayed each hour.
All other Utilization data is eliminated.
E. It is a sample of dbzone s physical memory usage taken every 10 seconds and 24-hour period.
Only peak memory usage is displayed each hour.
All other utilization data is eliminated.
Answer: D

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NO.4 configuring NFS on a server. Select the two statements that are true.
A. Resources listed in /etc/dfs/dfstab are automatically shared on boot up.
B. A directory cannot be shared if a subdirectory below it is already shared.
C. Renaming a share created with the zfs set share command is not supported.
D. NFS and SMB protocols cannot be used simultaneously to share the same directory.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which five statements describe options available for installing the Oracle Solaris 11operating system
using the installation media?
A. You can perform a text or LiveCD installation locally or over the network.
B. The text Installer does not install the GNOME desktop. The GNOME desktop package must he added
after you have installed the operating system.
C. The LiveCD Installation cannot be used to install multiple instances of Oracle Solaris.
D. The LiveCD installer cannot be used if you need to preserve a specific Solaris Volume Table of
Contents (VTOC) slice in your current operating system.
E. The LiveCD Installer is for x86 platforms only.
F. The GUI installer cannot be used to upgrade your operating system from Solaris 10.
G. If you are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on an x86-based system that will have more than one operating
system installed in it, you cannot partition your disk during the installation process.
H. The LiveCD installer can be used for SPARC or x86 platforms.
Answer: A, B, D, F

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NO.6 Review the ZFS dataset output that is displayed on your system:
Which four correctly describe the output?
A. /data/file4 has been added.
B. The link /data/file3 has been added.
C. /data/file3 has been renamed to /data/file13.
D. /data/file4 has been modified and is now larger.
E. /data/file1 has been deleted.
F. /data/file1 has been modified and is now smaller.
G. /data/file5 has been modified.
H. /data/file3 (a link) has been removed.
Answer: A, C, E, G

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NO.7 Identify the Automated Installer s (AI) equivalent to jumpStart s finish scripts and sysidcfg files.
A. Manifest files
B. SMF system configuration profile files
C. Installadm create-client
D. IPS software package repository
E. installadm create-service
F. svccfg-s application/pkg/server setprop sysidcfg
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the two security features incorporated in the Oracle Solaris 11 Cryptographic Framework.
A. Layer 5 IP address encryptions
B. Internet protocol security
C. Diffie-Kerberos coaxial key encryption
D. Signed cryptographic plugins (providers)
E. Kernel support for signed antivirus plugins
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 You need to set up an Oracle Solaris 11 host as an iSCSI target so that the host's disk can be accessed
over a storage network. The disk device is c3t4d0.
Which six options describe the steps that need to be taken on this host to enable an iSCSI target?
A. Create a ZFS file system named iscsi/target.
B. Create a zpool named iscsi with disk device c3t4d0
C. Create zfs volume named iscsi/target.
D. Use the stmfadm command to create a LUN using /dev/zvol/rdsk/iscsi/target.
E. Use the stmfadm command to create a LUN using iscsi/target.
F. Use the stmfadm command to make the LUN viewable.
G. Use the stmfadm command to make the volume viewable.
H. Enable the svc:/network/iscsi/target:default Service.
I. Use the itadm command to create the iSCSI target.
Answer: B, C, D, F, H, I

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NO.10 When setting up Automated Installer (AI) clients, an interactive tool can be used to generate a custom
system configuration profile. The profile will specify the time zone, data and time, user and root accounts,
and name services used for an AI client installation. This interactive tool will prompt you to enter the client
information and an SC profile (XML) will be created.
Which interactive tool can be used to generate this question configuration?
A. sys-unconfig
B. installadm set-criteria
C. sysconfig create-profile
D. installadm create-profile
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1z0-507
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Payable Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-16

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NO.1 Which statement is correct if the payment terms entered in the invoice differ from the
payment
terms on the purchase order?
A. The payment term of the purchase order overrides the invoice payment term.
B. The payment term of the invoice overrides the purchase order payment term.
C. The user needs to specify which payment term will be used.
D. The user needs to manually change the payment term on the invoice to make it the same as
the purchase order payment term.
E. The purchase order payment term can NOT be overridden.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three statements are true when a prepayment is applied to an invoice by selecting the
option Include on Invoice?
A. The prepayment amount available for application is reduced.
B. The unpaid invoice amount is reduced by the amount of the prepayment application.
C. The unpaid invoice amount is not affected by the prepayment application.
D. The invoice is updated to reflect the amount paid by prepayment in the Installments tab.
E. The prepayment amount paid is NOT updated In the Installment tab of invoice.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which two invoice actions are NOT allowed if prepayments have been applied to an invoice?
A. Cancel an invoice.
B. Reverse an invoice distribution.
C. Modify an invoice distribution.
D. Add an invoice line.
E. Modify the accounting information.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What is the invoice type of an unmatched Invoice created in the Supplier Portal?
A. Standard invoice request
B. Standard
C. Credit memo
D. Payment request
E. Credit memo invoice request
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the Invoice Requiring Attention section of the invoice
Dashboard?
A. displays links to all prepayment type invoices that have NOT been fully applied
B. lists invoices entered or imported in the past seven days that are NOT yet accounted or
accounted for in draft only
C. displays Invoices in the system that are waiting for approval*
D. displays invoices rejected in the approval process along with the reason for rejection
E. displays all scanned invoices through the Integrated imaging solution that have NOT yet had
accounts Payables invoices created
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What are the three sections in the Payables Key Indicators Report?
A. Recent Activity
B. Current Activity
C. Invoice Activity
D. Payment Activity
E. State of the Application
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Identify three invoice options that can be configured on the Manage Invoice Options page for
Self-
Service Invoices.
A. Limit the invoice to single purchase order.
B. Require validation before approval.
C. Allow invoice backdating.
D. Allow unit price change for quantity based matches.
E. Requireinvoice grouping.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which three options are used to sort the Unaccounted Transaction Report?
A. Transaction Type
B. Transaction Source
C. Transaction Currency
D. Transaction Number
E. Transaction Date
Answer: A,C,D

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