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Exam Code: HP0-S33
Exam Name: HP (Advanced Integration and Management of HP Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 79 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What can you configure with the BladeSystem Insight Display on a c7000 enclosure? (Select
three)
A. Rack name
B. Power mode
C. Number of fans installed
D. OA1 IP address
E. Blade name
F. Midplane serial number
Answer: A,B,D

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Reference:
http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c00698534 /c00698534.pdf(page 13)

NO.2 When developing an implementation Plan, what does the acceptance criteria establish?
A. Exit criteria for transactioning the system into production
B. Minimum level of performance required for plan continuation
C. Authorization to continue toward funding of the project
D. Authorization to start or implement the project plan
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are experiencing problems with a Virtual Connect domain and want to verify the domain
status. Which tool can you use to perform a domain health check?
A. Service Pack for ProLiant
B. Active System Health Log
C. Virtual Connect Active Health
D. Virtual Connect Support Utility
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://bizsupport.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c01566977 /c01566977.pdf (page
17, see step 2)
Step 2-Run a health check on the Virtual Connect domain
1. From a local system with VCSU installed, execute the following command:
vcutil -a healthcheck -i <Primary OA IP> -u <OA Admin account> -p <OA password>

NO.4 A customer is running HP SIM in a headquarters that has three branch offices with multiple
server blades managed by the HP SIM in a central location. Version Control Repository Manager is
configured in all branch offices, but all deployment tasks should be performed from the central
location. What must you configure first?
A. all remote VCRMs properly licensed
B. Secure tunnel between headquarters and the branch offices
C. Additional CMS server in the brach offices that will not perform any management function and
will work as a federated CMS and give access to the local VCRM
D. Trust relationship between HP SIM and the machines running VCRM in remote locations
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Windows performance counter can be used to check for a Smart Array disk bottleneck
problem?
A. Logical Disk: Average Disk Queue Length
B. Physical Disk: Average Disk Queue length
C. Logical Disk: Average Disk Write Queue Length
D. Physical Disk: Average Disk Write Queue Length
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer needs a direct attached based storage for a BladeSystem and wants a solution that
enables low cost zoned or shared storage.
Which type of HP external storage meets the customer requirements?
A. Direct Connect SAS storage
B. Infiniband
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
D. Serial Attached SCSi
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://h18006.www1.hp.com/products/storageworks/sas_solution/index.html (Overview, first para)
With the direct connect SAS storage for HP BladeSystem, HP extends and redefines direct-attached
storage for BladeSystem servers. Now you can build local server storage on the fly with zoned
storage, or enable low cost shared storage within the rack

NO.7 To protect virtual running on multiple ESXi 5.0 hosts, a customer decides to configure a High
Availability cluster. What are the requirements for this type of cluster?
A. The management network must be configured with the Fast Tolerant option enabled.
B. Enhanced VMotion compatibility mode and Storage DRS must be enabled on the cluster level.
C. Virtual machine must be stored on the datastore available from each member of the cluster.
D. The cluster must be configured using Host Profiles.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Requirements for a VMware HA Cluster Review this list before setting up a VMware HA cluster. For
more information, follow the appropriate cross reference or see Creating a VMware HA Cluster.
All hosts must be licensed for VMware HA. You need at least two hosts in the cluster. All hosts need
a unique host name. All hosts need to be configured with static IP addresses. If you are using DHCP ,
you must ensure that the address for each host persists across reboots. All hosts must have access
to the same management networks. There must be at least one management network in common
among all hosts and best practice is to have at least two. Management networks differ depending
on the version of host you are using. ESX hosts - service console network. ESXi hosts earlier than
version 4.0 - VMkernel network. ESXi hosts version 4.0 and later - VMkernel network with the
Management Network checkbox enabled.
See Networking Best Practices. To ensure that any virtual machine can run on any host in the cluster,
all hosts should have access to the same virtual machine networks and datastores. Similarly, virtual
machines must be located on shared, not local, storage otherwise they cannot be failed over in the
case of a host failure. For VM Monitoring to work, VMware tools must be installed. See VM and
Application Monitoring. All hosts in a VMware HA cluster must have DNS configured so that the
short host name (without the domain suffix) of any host in the cluster can be resolved to the
appropriate IP address from any other host in the cluster. Otherwise, the Configuring HA task could
fail. If you add the host using the IP address, also enable reverse DNS lookup (the IP address should
be resolvable to the short host name).

NO.8 Which host is selected as a master host in the VMware HA cluster?
A. The host with access to the greatest number of the datastores
B. The host with the redundancy configured for management network
C. The host with the greatest number of virtual machines configured with fault tolerance
D. The host with the greatest CPU and memory capacity
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc_50%2FGU
IDB9ACCE9B-A14D-4B2F87EF-4B0A67ABDF58.html
When you add a host to a vSphere HA cluster, an agent is uploaded to the host and configured to
communicate with other agents in the cluster. Each host in the cluster functions as a master host or
a slave host. When vSphere HA is enabled for a cluster, all active hosts (those not in standby or
maintenance mode, or not disconnected) participate in an election to choose the cluster's master
host. The host that mounts the greatest number of datastores has an advantage in the election.
Only one master host exists per cluster and all other hosts are slave hosts. If the master host fails, is
shut down, or is removed from the cluster a new election is held.

NO.9 You want to create a service template using I/O Designer that will be deployed to the Hyper-V
host. Currently, only VMware templates have been used in this environment.
How must you prepare a virtual machine template to use for this template?
A. Use the Insight Control Server migration functionality to migrate the VM from VMware to
Hyper-V and then use the vCenter server to prepare the template recognized by I/O.
B. You can use VMware templates for Hyper-V deployment since I/O is virtualization layer
independent.
C. Use the I/O converter tool to convert the VMware template to change it to the correct format.
D. Create a virtual machine template using Insight Control virtual machine management
functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer complained of slow performance on an HP ProLiant server. You upgraded to faster
processes and added memory to the server. What should you create after you change the server
hardware configuration?
A. New performance baseline
B. Insight Diagnostics report
C. CPU Stress report
D. Memory Validation report
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-554
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Application Development Framework 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Your application contains an entity object, OrdersEO.You decide to create an updatable view object
SpecialOrdersVO, to handle orders that contain not-from-stock items.
How will SpecialOrdersVO and OrdersEO interact to retrieve data about special orders?
A.OrdersEO retrieves the data from the database and validates it; SpecialOrdersVO then queries the
entity object's cache
B.SpecialOrdersVO queries the database; the retrieved data is validated in the entity object, and then
saved to the entity object's cache
C.SpecialOrdersVO queries the OrdersEO entity object to retrieve data about special orders; the data is
then saved in the view object's cache
D.SpecialOrdersVO queries the OrdersEO cache; the data is validated by the entity object, and then the
two objects are synchronized with the database
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to define that a panel box titled should display information about the currently selected
customer: currently editing Customer Surname: <Customer s Last Name> < Credit limit> .If the credit
limit is null, then a zero should be displayed.Furthermore, in case the label for the surname field changes,
this string should reference the ADF Business Components control hints for the label.
A.Currently editing Customer Surname: # { bindings.CustLastName.Input Value} # {bindings.
CreditLimit.inputValue}
B.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
{bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {empty bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue ? 0 : bindings.
CreditLimit.InputValue}
C.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
{bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {Null bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue ? 0 :
D.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {if empty bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue
then 0 else bindings.CreditLimit.INputValue}
Answer: B

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NO.3 You select a binding In the page definition file and set the ChangeEventPolicy property to ppr.
What effect does this action have on the way the page is rendered?
A.It allows a component to partially refresh another component whose partialSubmit property is set to
true.
B.When a user selects a new value In a field, the portion of the page where that component resides is
redrawn.
C.It enables you to add a component as a partial target for an event, so that when that event is triggered,
the partial target component is refreshed.
D.Components whose values change as a result of back-end logic are automatically repainted.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which two places do you configure managed beans?
A.In the page definition file
B.In the faces-config.xml file
C.In the adfc-config.xml file
D.In the Property Inspector
E.In the task flow definition files
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Identify two advantages that ADF Model offers the developer.
A.It insulates the developer from needing to know about the specifics of the underlying business services
implementation.
B.It enables the developer to abstract application navigation from the physical pages.
C.It saves time In that it allows the developer to quickly build business services from database tables.
D.It enables the developer to bind UI components directly to tables and columns in the database.
E.It provides the developer with a generalized approach to binding services and UI components.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 For a Customers view object, you have defined a view criteria to show only U.S.customers.On an ADF
Faces page, you already have an ADF Faces table displaying data from the Customers view object.
How would you display a query panel on the page that will allow you to select the view criteria and filter
the existing Customers table on the page.?
A.Drag the view criteria as a query panel.
B.Drag the view criteria to the existing table and select query panel with table.
C.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the ID property of the query panel to reference the
table.
D.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Resultcomponent ID property of the query
component to reference the table.
E.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Model property of the query component to
reference the table binding.
F.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the value property of the query component to
reference the table binding.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have found a declarative component that you would like to use on one of the pages that you are
designing.
Choose the correct sequence of steps to add the component to the page.
A.Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.Deploy the component's project as an ADF
library JAR file.
B.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
C.Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
D.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
E.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An application module is named MyAppModule.No Java component is defined for the module but the
application does define a base class that extends racle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario?
A.Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1.java extends the base class.
B.Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C.No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java component named
MyAppModuleImp1.java does not exist.
D.Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E.The MyAppModule.xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have an ADF Faces page which includes input components for A, B and C.On updating either A or
B, you want C to be refreshed automatically.How could you achieve this?
A.Set the PartialTriggers property on A and B to reference
B.Set the PartialTriggers property on C to reference A and B
C.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true
D.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true, and the PartialTriggers property on C to reference A
and B
E.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true and the PartialTriggers property on C to reference C
F.Set the Autosubmit property to true on A, B and C
Answer: E

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NO.10 You are debugging an application module method that seems to be causing an error when the argument
value is anything but "2".How could you most efficiently debug this issue?
A.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint property to break
only for threads named oracie.jbo.Exception.
B.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint pass count
property to 2.
C.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint condition to arg !
= 2.
D.Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and step through the
breakpoint at execution to determine the argument value.
E.Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and set the condition to arg
== 2.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-219
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
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Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-561
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle FLEXCUBE Universal Banking 11 Basic Implementation Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Oracle FLEXCUBE Branch Teller can perform multiple operations using the DD Teller screen. Which are
valid Teller DD operations?
A) DD issue against GL
B) DD issue against Walkin
C) DD liquidation against GL
D) DD sale against account
A. A,B and C
B. A, B, CandD
C. AandC
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which can be restricted for a facility?
A) Customers B) Branches C) Products D) Currencies
A. All
B. A, B and D
C. A, C and D
D. B, C and D
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which conventions is currency rounded?
A) Truncate
B) Round Up
C) Round Down
D) All the above
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.4 When is the "Year-end P/L Account" (specified at the Bank level) used.?
A. when a particular GL is closed
B. whenthe GL to which year-end balancesshould be posted is not specified inAccounts
C. when all year-end transactions pertaining to Memo GL are to be posted
D. when previous year adjustment entries are to be posted
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which definitions does Bank Parameter Maintenance allow?
A) Account Class Mask Definition
B) CIF Mask Definition
C) Product Mask Definition
D) GL Mask Definition
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. B and D
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements are true in regards to Change Class?
A) Different Association, Application and Liquidation events will be available.
B) Different Basic Amount Tags will be available.
C) Different Third-Party Types will be available.
D) Different User-Defined Fields will be available.
A. A. and B
B. C and D
C. A and D
D. B and D
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is true about Dormancy Days in Account Class?
A. MarkCustomer Account as Dormant as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and
credittransactions for the number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
B. Close Customer Account as part of EOD batch process if there are no debit and credit
transactionsforthe number of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
C. AutomaticallyTick No Debit and No Credit flag as part of EOD batch process if there areno debit are
credit transactions for thenumber of days maintained under Dormancy Days in Account Class.
D. Mark the customer linked to the Customer Account as Dormant.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A bank has ICCF Rule implemented to collect its processing charges, but due to regulation changes
now it can no longer levy these charges on the transactions.
What changes are required in Oracle FLEXCUBE to implement new requirement?
A. Amend therespective products and select the "Stop Application" flag in the Charge Definition screen.
B. Unlock the ICCF Rule and delink all the attached products.
C. Reverse the ICCF Rule.
D. Delete the ICCF Rule.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which depreciation method does the depreciation amount specified by the bank on a fixed asset does
not remain constant throughout that asset s useful life?
A. SLM
B. WDV
C. Activity Depreciation Method
D. Sum of Digits Depreciation Method
Answer: D

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NO.10 An MM Borrowing contract has been created. The contract value date is 0l-Jan-2010 and maturity date
is 31-Mar-2010. The customer has approached the bank and requested for an extension of the contract
with a maturity date of 02-Apr-2010.
From which screen of the MM module, can the extension of this contract be performed?
A. MM Rollover screen
B. MM Contract Schedule screen
C. MM Value Dated Amendment screen
D. from all of these three screens
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1z0-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Comprehensive reference and Competitor management helps a sales organization to
increase sales velocity and sales productivity. Which is true regarding Oracle Fusion reference and
competitor management?
A. Enables a sales organization to track and manage activity threshold for a competitor.
B. Enables a sales organization to track revenue won to date, while using reference
C. Enables a sales organization to develop an end-to-end customer reference program from
reference
program development, enrolling, and managing reference.
D. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a competitor.
E. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a reference.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are asked to define lookup that provides the ability to define a reference set of values
based on a lookup code. Select the lookup type that you should choose for this scenario.
A. Standard lookup
B. Value Set
C. Set-Enabled lookup
D. Common lookup
E. Value-Enabled lookup
Answer: C

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NO.3 After adding a new product to a catalog, the product does not appear within the catalog.
Identity the three actions you would take to resolve the problem.
A. Verify theproduct's life-cycle phaseand see if the start and end dates are correct.
B. Check that the product is listed in the correct catalog.
C. Verify that the catalog is set as a Rollup Catalog.
D. Verify that the catalog is not a Template Catalog.
E. Verify that the catalog edits have been published.
F. Verify that the catalog contains at least one promotion template for the new product.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 You are configuring the Sales Assignment Manager based on resource candidates and credit
allocation candidates. In your company, resources change frequently but credit allocation is more
stable.
You a currently deciding how to set the Fusion cache values.
Select the true statement based on this scenario.
A. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Owner Objectlevel because resources change
frequently;the
Sales cache should be updated daily.
B. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Candidate Object level, but must be the same across all
levels; because resources change frequently, the cache should be updated daily.
C. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set on individual candidate objects; Resource should be set to dally
but
Credit Allocation might be set to weekly.
D. This scenario can't be accomplished because it is not possible to have multiple candidate objects
for
one owner object.
E. Oracle Fusion Objects are not cached; therefore no cache configuration is necessary.
Answer: C

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NO.5 After creating custom fields for opportunities, you are ready to import legacy data into the
Fusion
System. Which step is necessary before the opportunity data can be imported?
A. Navigate to the Application Composer and click the Generate button in the Import and Export,
section.
B. Navigate to the Application Composer. Select the Enable import / Export check box for each
custom
field in the Import / Export section.
C. Navigate to the Application Composer. Click the Refresh button in the Custom Objects section.
D. Navigate to the task:Manage Import / Export for Custom Fields. Click the Synchronize button.
E. No special configuration steps are necessary before legacy opportunity data is imported into
custom
fields.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A sales representative has closed revenue of amount X for a territory for the year 2011, and
amount Y for the same territory for the year 2009. Amount X is 122% of amount Y. The market
potential for the territory for the year 2012 is an additional 10%. Select the best rule to identify the
appropriate quota amount (110% of amount X) for the same sales rep for the territory for 2012.
A. percentage change in a measure over three name time periods
B. X% growth of a measure overthree year exponential moving average
C. weighted average of a measure over the past three years
D. Scale a measure from a past period by X%.
E. percentage change in a measure value over two named periods
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child territory quotas to
the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can create
active
territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the validation process in Oracle
Fusion
Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Identify the two correct statements regarding nonrevenue forecasts.
A. Multiple overlay resources cannot be forecast to the same primary deal.
B. Organizations have to explicitly enable the nonrevenue forecasting feature.
C. Nonrevenue forecast allows the same revenue to the forecast multiple times.
D. You cannot designate territories as forecastable for nonrevenue.
E. Nonrevenue forecast has no relationship with nonrevenue; quota goals set on the territory.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An organization is implementing close opportunity management functionality. Select three
profile options available to configure the close opportunity management process in Oracle Fusion
Sales.
A. Close Opportunity How Enabled
B. Close Opportunity Reference Enabled
C. Close Opportunity Win/Loss Enabled
D. Close Opportunity Competitor Enabled
E. Close Opportunity Status Enabled
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 When the opportunity import process was initially created, the Customer Data Management
Duplicatesfield was left blank. You are now using this process to import flat files; each flat file
contains 50 records.While reviewing the data, you happen to notice that the same opportunity is
included in two separate flat files, but the value of the Sales Stage field is different in the second file.
If you import both files, what will happen?
A. The second Import process will fail.
B. The second import process will succeed, but the duplicate opportunity record will fail.
C. The Fusion system will create a resolution request.
D. The Fusion system will create a duplicate record.
E. The Fusion system will update the opportunity record with the value from the second file.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Identify the metric that provides the sum of all weighted revenue values for all forecast items
in the
forecast period.
A. Quota metric
B. Expected Forecast metric
C. Estimated Adjustment metric
D. Pipeline metric
E. Closed Revenue metric
Answer: B

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NO.13 A company is, interested in assigning experienced and skilled sales representatives to their
key
Customers. Which two dimensions must be used for achieving this?
A. Geography
B. Account
C. Customer Size
D. Organization Type
E. Product
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 The sales manager in a company conducts product demos for customers frequently as part of
lead management. As part of his activity, the sales manager has two coordinate with different
departments in the company through emails to conduct the product demos effectively.
Coordination with other departments by emails is a time-consuming activity and requires multiple
follow ups. Choose the correct solution to automate these coordination activities.
A. UseAssessmentTemplates.
B. UseSalesMethods.
C. UseTaskTemplates.
D. UseResourcesGroups.
E. UseAssessmentTemplates andTaskTemplate.
Answer: E

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NO.15 A company has implemented Oracle Fusion Lead Management. The sales manager in the
company has asked the sales team to qualify leads for further follow ups with customers/prospects.
What are the three parameters that determine lead qualification?
A. approved budget
B. lead owner assigned
C. definite purchase timeline
D. Identified decision maker
E. ratings
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.16 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range of win
probability
and status.
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Identify three functions of the Activate Sales Quota Plan process.
A. creates territory and resource quota records
B. sends workflow notifications to territory owners and administrators
C. activates territory quota spread formula
D. synchronizes territory quota changes
E. sets the sales quota plan status to Active
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.19 There are four product lines in your sales organization. Each product has two subcategories.
Identify the product dimension attributes used for the definition of the territory structure.
A. Dimensions
B. Dimension Parameters
C. Dimension Members
D. Dimensions and Dimension Parameter
E. Dimensions, Dimension Parameters, and Dimension Members
Answer: C

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NO.20 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment mappings
involving
Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal review, your company decides to no
longer
base decisions on industry. Your supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations
from
the Fusion Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and selecting the
Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that already use Industry.
Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function; however no new
assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function, but the concept
of
Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a resolution request.
E. This can't be done; assignment objects can t be set to inactive if there is a mapping defined using
the
object
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1z0-507
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Payable Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Invoice Requiring Attention section of the invoice
Dashboard?
A. displays links to all prepayment type invoices that have NOT been fully applied
B. lists invoices entered or imported in the past seven days that are NOT yet accounted or
accounted for in draft only
C. displays Invoices in the system that are waiting for approval*
D. displays invoices rejected in the approval process along with the reason for rejection
E. displays all scanned invoices through the Integrated imaging solution that have NOT yet had
accounts Payables invoices created
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which three statements are true when a prepayment is applied to an invoice by selecting the
option Include on Invoice?
A. The prepayment amount available for application is reduced.
B. The unpaid invoice amount is reduced by the amount of the prepayment application.
C. The unpaid invoice amount is not affected by the prepayment application.
D. The invoice is updated to reflect the amount paid by prepayment in the Installments tab.
E. The prepayment amount paid is NOT updated In the Installment tab of invoice.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which statement is correct if the payment terms entered in the invoice differ from the
payment
terms on the purchase order?
A. The payment term of the purchase order overrides the invoice payment term.
B. The payment term of the invoice overrides the purchase order payment term.
C. The user needs to specify which payment term will be used.
D. The user needs to manually change the payment term on the invoice to make it the same as
the purchase order payment term.
E. The purchase order payment term can NOT be overridden.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the three sections in the Payables Key Indicators Report?
A. Recent Activity
B. Current Activity
C. Invoice Activity
D. Payment Activity
E. State of the Application
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which three options are used to sort the Unaccounted Transaction Report?
A. Transaction Type
B. Transaction Source
C. Transaction Currency
D. Transaction Number
E. Transaction Date
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 What is the invoice type of an unmatched Invoice created in the Supplier Portal?
A. Standard invoice request
B. Standard
C. Credit memo
D. Payment request
E. Credit memo invoice request
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two invoice actions are NOT allowed if prepayments have been applied to an invoice?
A. Cancel an invoice.
B. Reverse an invoice distribution.
C. Modify an invoice distribution.
D. Add an invoice line.
E. Modify the accounting information.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Identify three invoice options that can be configured on the Manage Invoice Options page for
Self-
Service Invoices.
A. Limit the invoice to single purchase order.
B. Require validation before approval.
C. Allow invoice backdating.
D. Allow unit price change for quantity based matches.
E. Requireinvoice grouping.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 1z0-599
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which
two
reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?
A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.
B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.
C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded
database, network appliance, or storage system.
D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 You deploy more than one application to the same WebLogic container. The security is set on
JavaEE level and all deployed JavaEE applications use the same security roles.
What is your recommendation for an architecture with those requirement
A. Combine all applications into a single one.
B. Define global roles on the WebLogic Domain level.
C. Use Ms Active Directory to keep the roles there.
D. Use Oracle Identity and Access Management solution to simplify the management.
E. Keep role mapping in the external WebLogic Role Mapped developed for that solution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When your WebLogic Server solution needs to be scaled out with additional capacity and you
don’t want to add additional hardware, which three techniques should you us?
A. Assign more than one managed server to a physical hardware that allows better CPU
utilization.
B. Assign more than one application to one managed server to better utilize threads within a single
JVM process.
C. Assign the same application to more than one managed server to load balance requests
between servers.
D. Assign the same heap size to the managed server across the cluster for easier control of
memory footprint
E. Create a virtualized environment with hypervisor for an easier solution
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 A customer needs to implement a Highly Available solution for JMS that has a primary data
center
and a backup. Which three steps would you perform when designing your solution?
A. Store Transaction Logs in a database and use Database stores for JMS to make replication
between sites easier.
B. Use file based Transaction Logs and JMS stores and implement a separate replication solution
for files in addition to database in case database replication fails.
C. Implement Oracle RAC at each site to provide a highly available solution within each
datacenter.
D. Configure Whole Server Migration to migrate WebLogic Managed Servers from the primary to
the secondary site.
E. Configure Automatic Service Migration for JMS high availability within a datacenter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their
customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?
A. Sessions can't be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider
redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.
B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production
mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.
C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can't be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying
application.
D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side
deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.
E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are
preserved without any extra settings.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multinode
Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide significant performance benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Answer: C

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NO.7 A highly available WebLogic cluster in UNIX is configured for automatic server migration. Node
Managed is configured on both machines to start managed servers.
How should you simulate a managed server failure to test whether automatic server migration is
working?
A. Shut down the managed server from the WebLogic console.
B. Shut down the managed server using the WLST command through Node Manager.
C. Run "kill -9" once to kill the managed server process.
D. Run "kill -9" to kill the managed server process, and run "kill -9" one more time if the managed
server is restarting.
Answer: A

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