2013年11月2日星期六

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Exam Code: HP2-B88
Exam Name: HP (HP Web Jetadmin Printer Fleet Management Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What could provide additional security features to a printer?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPV2
C. HP Web Jetadmin Supplies Alerts
D. the latest device firmware version
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which applications can be used in conjunction with SNMP? (Select three.)
A. HP Proprietary Postscript Print Driver
B. HP Open View
C. HP Fleet Manager
D. IBM Tivoli
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 Which commands apply to SNMPv2?
A. set and getnext
B. getbulk and inform
C. trap and set
D. trap and getnext
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is getbulk?
A. an enhanced version of SNMPv1 trap
B. a method of retrieving large blocks of data
C. a method of notification that the trap has been received
D. a security feature within firmware
Answer: B

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NO.5 What determines the extent to which HP Web Jetadmin can manage third-party printers.?
A. WMI
B. DMI
C. MIB
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about HP Web Jetadmin plug-ins?
A. Plug-ins are hardware modules that can be added to an HP LaserJet.
B. Plug-ins are special scripts that can be sent to the printer by HP Web Jetadmin.
C. Plug-ins are DIMMs that add functionality to the printer when accessed by HP Web Jetadmin.
D. Plug-ins are software packages that add extra functionality to the HP Web Jetadmin application
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which technologies does HP Web Jetadmin use for the client interface?
A. Java and SmartClient
B. Java and Web client
C. .NET framework and SmartClient
D. Web client and .NET remoting
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are community names?
A. a form of authentication for SNMP communication
B. a form of status information for SNMP communication
C. a form of encryption for SNMP communication
D. a form of password protection for SNMP communication
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is an SNMPV3 (full/ configured) communication between the HP Web Jetadmin installation and
the managed device?
A. an encrypted text transmission only
B. an encrypted and authenticated text transmission
C. an unencrypted text transmission only
D. an unencrypted and authenticated text transmission
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which is a connectionless, transport layer-based protocol?
A. UDP
B. UPD
C. HTTTP
D. TCP
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H25
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Personal Systems )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What is unique about HP Z1 Workstations?
A. provides a nearly silent industrial designed workstation that fits into confined spaces
B. provides a rugged design that passes Military Standard 810G testing
C. is the only HP All-in-One Workstation and includes the first 27" monitor and Intel Xeon
processors
D. is the only HP All-in-One Workstation and includes dual processors, 16 memory slots, and 6-
channel SATA with RAID functionality
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are some key advantages of HP Z220 SFF Workstations?
A. 600 W 90% efficient power supply, high performance SATA and SAS drives with RAID
configurations
B. ISV certification, dual or quad core processor, next generation professional graphics
C. low cost, common images across series, standard manageability agents
D. large size, wide angle monitor, Intel processor
Answer: B

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NO.3 How is the HP ProBook 6475b different from other HP ProBook b series computers?
A. The HP ProBook 6475b has an AMD processor.
B. The HP ProBook 6475b is easier to use and more convenient.
C. The HP ProBook 6475b is smaller and more compact.
D. The HP ProBook 6475b is lighter weight and more versatile.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a key advantage of choosing HP 6360t Mobile Thin Client computers?
A. the smallest keyboard in the industry
B. reliability with fewer moving parts
C. extended product life with more mechanical devices
D. availability with a 6-cell battery that provides up to 55 working hours or with a 9-cell battery that
provides up to 100 working hours
Answer: B

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NO.5 What makes HP Workstations a better value?
A. low price, value, and recyclability
B. capabilities of running various operating systems includes Macintosh, UNIX, and HPUX
C. advanced graphics features, expandability, large amounts of memory, and reliability
D. built to meet the demands of on-the-go mobile users who want access to email and
entertainment
Answer: C

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NO.6 How is the HP ProBook 4340s different than the HP Probook 4740s?
A. they have different fax modems
B. they have different size hard drives
C. they have different size displays
D. they have different key board layouts
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a feature of HP Compaq 8300 Elite All-in-One PCs?
A. 23-inch HD monitor with adjustable orientation and multi-touch features
B. extra-sensitive keyboard that provides the look and feel of a tablet computer
C. includes the HP OfficeJet Pro 8600 All-in-One MFP
D. extra power supply that provides more access to power-intensive operations
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a key competitive differentiator of HP Elite PCs?
A. out-of-the-box productivity with genuine Windows 7 operating system, a variety of optical
drives, and up to 2TB hard drive
B. HD touch monitor that provides quick access to Uls
C. form factors, including mini tower and all-in-one, for versatility in the business environment
D. HP's smallest desktop system providing the most efficient use of desk space
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a reason to choose an HP Compaq Pro 6300 All-in-One PC?
A. powerful PC for customers who require top performance in graphics
B. light-weight mobile computer
C. heavy-duty, durable commercial PC
D. space-efficient, commercial-class all-in-one PC
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a key competitive differentiator of HP EliteBook 2760p computers?
A. 720p camera on a rotatable panel with SRS premium sound
B. extra large versatile hard drive with super RPM technology
C. enterprise level common docking
D. industry leading battery life
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J59
Exam Name: HP (StoreOnce Solutions Advanced Service and Support)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Which statement describes the difference between deduplication technology used on an HP
VLS9200 and an HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System?
A. The VLS9200 and D2D4324 use post-processing deduplication technology.
B. VLS9200 uses HP post-processing deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP StoreOnce inline
deduplication technology.
C. VLS9200 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Accelerated Deduplication
technology.
D. VLS9200 uses HP StoreOnce Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication
technology.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When reloading the configuration from a saved configuration file, same information will not
be
restored since it could potentially cause data loss on the surviving D2D appliance. Which data is
not restored and needs to be entered during the recovery operations?
A. Replication slot mapping
B. iSCSI partner settings
C. TCP/IP addresses
D. SMTP and eMail settings
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which library emulation types can be used with the HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System to
integrate the solution in a customer environment? (Select three)
A. HP 2x8 Autoloader
B. D2D-VTL generic library
C. MSL6060 G2 series library
D. EML series library
E. D2DBS generic library
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Backup jobs are failing to a NAS share on an HP StoreOnce D2D Backup System permissions
set. What is one way to verify access to this CIFS share?
A. Check if root user permissions have been granted to the share.
B. Verify that no Linux backup servers access the CIFS shares.
C. Check Active Directory or local permissions for the share.
D. Verify that the client system being backed up has permission to write to share.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement correctly describes the installation wizard of an HP StoreOnce Backup
System
when run for the first time?
A. It automatically configures the iSCSI Initiator on the target host.
B. It automatically configure the system with the default IP 192.168 1.0/ 24.
C. It automatically operates in High Availability (LACP) network mode
D. It automatically creates an iSCSI device on iSCSI models.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer asks you to recommend an HP StoreOnce Backup System solution with these
availability features:
Redundant fans
Redundant power supplies
Dual 8 GB Fibre Channel connections
Which Hp StoreOnce Backup System model meets these requirements?
A. D2D2502i G2
B. D2D4106fc
C. D2D4306fc
D. D2D4324
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K32
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Storage Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 Which requirements would prevent you from offering the HP 3PAR StoreServ product to a
customer?
A. The customer needs to have thin provisioning.
B. The customer has a VMware vSphere environment.
C. The customer has a need for BC/DR capability.
D. The customer specifically requires VMware vMSC cluster support.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your SMB customer has spare server capacity and wants to implement shared storage for a
virtual environment. Which product would you recommend?
A. HP MSA 2000
B. HP StoreVirtual 4000
C. HP StoreVirtual VSA
D. HP 3PARStoreServ7000
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does Exchange 2010/ 2013 enable the use of virtualized environments?
A. It allows comprehensive e-discovery against all emails stored in the Exchange archives.
B. It provides automated deduplication to reduce the size of stored files.
C. It enables IT to reuse unallocated disk space and host all mailboxes on local servers.
D. It places less demands on storage, thus enabling the use of SAN storage architectures.
Answer: D

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NO.4 HP StoreEasy is Efficient and Highly Available and provides many other features. Which
additional feature is regarded as key for your customers?
A. Easy Integration
B. Simple Management
C. Security
D. Cost Effective Performance
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the major difference between block based and file based data?
A. File based data is typically unstructured.
B. File based data is typically found in a database.
C. Block based data is typically stored on a network-attached appliance.
D. Block based data is typically generated by rich media applications.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How does using HP StoreOnce backup improve data protection reliability?
A. by eliminating manual processes
B. by using multiple disk drives as a store
C. by performing backups during non-business hours
D. by increasing the speed of the data transfer
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your midmarket customer wants to develop a private cloud solution. Which HP Storage
product will be best suited to that requirement?
A. HP StoreVirtual VSA
B. HP StoreVirtual 4500
C. HP 3PARStoreServ7000
D. HP StoreOnce
Answer: C

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NO.8 How does utilizing HP StoreOnce for backup enable the use of low bandwidth links?
A. only the files that have changed need to be transferred
B. only the data blocks that have changed are transferred
C. backups do not need to be performed so frequently
D. backups are performed during non-business hours
Answer: B

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Exam Name: HP (Advanced Integration and Management of HP Server Solutions)
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Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 What can you configure with the BladeSystem Insight Display on a c7000 enclosure? (Select
three)
A. Rack name
B. Power mode
C. Number of fans installed
D. OA1 IP address
E. Blade name
F. Midplane serial number
Answer: A,B,D

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Reference:
http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c00698534 /c00698534.pdf(page 13)

NO.2 When developing an implementation Plan, what does the acceptance criteria establish?
A. Exit criteria for transactioning the system into production
B. Minimum level of performance required for plan continuation
C. Authorization to continue toward funding of the project
D. Authorization to start or implement the project plan
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are experiencing problems with a Virtual Connect domain and want to verify the domain
status. Which tool can you use to perform a domain health check?
A. Service Pack for ProLiant
B. Active System Health Log
C. Virtual Connect Active Health
D. Virtual Connect Support Utility
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://bizsupport.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c01566977 /c01566977.pdf (page
17, see step 2)
Step 2-Run a health check on the Virtual Connect domain
1. From a local system with VCSU installed, execute the following command:
vcutil -a healthcheck -i <Primary OA IP> -u <OA Admin account> -p <OA password>

NO.4 A customer is running HP SIM in a headquarters that has three branch offices with multiple
server blades managed by the HP SIM in a central location. Version Control Repository Manager is
configured in all branch offices, but all deployment tasks should be performed from the central
location. What must you configure first?
A. all remote VCRMs properly licensed
B. Secure tunnel between headquarters and the branch offices
C. Additional CMS server in the brach offices that will not perform any management function and
will work as a federated CMS and give access to the local VCRM
D. Trust relationship between HP SIM and the machines running VCRM in remote locations
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Windows performance counter can be used to check for a Smart Array disk bottleneck
problem?
A. Logical Disk: Average Disk Queue Length
B. Physical Disk: Average Disk Queue length
C. Logical Disk: Average Disk Write Queue Length
D. Physical Disk: Average Disk Write Queue Length
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer needs a direct attached based storage for a BladeSystem and wants a solution that
enables low cost zoned or shared storage.
Which type of HP external storage meets the customer requirements?
A. Direct Connect SAS storage
B. Infiniband
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
D. Serial Attached SCSi
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://h18006.www1.hp.com/products/storageworks/sas_solution/index.html (Overview, first para)
With the direct connect SAS storage for HP BladeSystem, HP extends and redefines direct-attached
storage for BladeSystem servers. Now you can build local server storage on the fly with zoned
storage, or enable low cost shared storage within the rack

NO.7 To protect virtual running on multiple ESXi 5.0 hosts, a customer decides to configure a High
Availability cluster. What are the requirements for this type of cluster?
A. The management network must be configured with the Fast Tolerant option enabled.
B. Enhanced VMotion compatibility mode and Storage DRS must be enabled on the cluster level.
C. Virtual machine must be stored on the datastore available from each member of the cluster.
D. The cluster must be configured using Host Profiles.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Requirements for a VMware HA Cluster Review this list before setting up a VMware HA cluster. For
more information, follow the appropriate cross reference or see Creating a VMware HA Cluster.
All hosts must be licensed for VMware HA. You need at least two hosts in the cluster. All hosts need
a unique host name. All hosts need to be configured with static IP addresses. If you are using DHCP ,
you must ensure that the address for each host persists across reboots. All hosts must have access
to the same management networks. There must be at least one management network in common
among all hosts and best practice is to have at least two. Management networks differ depending
on the version of host you are using. ESX hosts - service console network. ESXi hosts earlier than
version 4.0 - VMkernel network. ESXi hosts version 4.0 and later - VMkernel network with the
Management Network checkbox enabled.
See Networking Best Practices. To ensure that any virtual machine can run on any host in the cluster,
all hosts should have access to the same virtual machine networks and datastores. Similarly, virtual
machines must be located on shared, not local, storage otherwise they cannot be failed over in the
case of a host failure. For VM Monitoring to work, VMware tools must be installed. See VM and
Application Monitoring. All hosts in a VMware HA cluster must have DNS configured so that the
short host name (without the domain suffix) of any host in the cluster can be resolved to the
appropriate IP address from any other host in the cluster. Otherwise, the Configuring HA task could
fail. If you add the host using the IP address, also enable reverse DNS lookup (the IP address should
be resolvable to the short host name).

NO.8 Which host is selected as a master host in the VMware HA cluster?
A. The host with access to the greatest number of the datastores
B. The host with the redundancy configured for management network
C. The host with the greatest number of virtual machines configured with fault tolerance
D. The host with the greatest CPU and memory capacity
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc_50%2FGU
IDB9ACCE9B-A14D-4B2F87EF-4B0A67ABDF58.html
When you add a host to a vSphere HA cluster, an agent is uploaded to the host and configured to
communicate with other agents in the cluster. Each host in the cluster functions as a master host or
a slave host. When vSphere HA is enabled for a cluster, all active hosts (those not in standby or
maintenance mode, or not disconnected) participate in an election to choose the cluster's master
host. The host that mounts the greatest number of datastores has an advantage in the election.
Only one master host exists per cluster and all other hosts are slave hosts. If the master host fails, is
shut down, or is removed from the cluster a new election is held.

NO.9 You want to create a service template using I/O Designer that will be deployed to the Hyper-V
host. Currently, only VMware templates have been used in this environment.
How must you prepare a virtual machine template to use for this template?
A. Use the Insight Control Server migration functionality to migrate the VM from VMware to
Hyper-V and then use the vCenter server to prepare the template recognized by I/O.
B. You can use VMware templates for Hyper-V deployment since I/O is virtualization layer
independent.
C. Use the I/O converter tool to convert the VMware template to change it to the correct format.
D. Create a virtual machine template using Insight Control virtual machine management
functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer complained of slow performance on an HP ProLiant server. You upgraded to faster
processes and added memory to the server. What should you create after you change the server
hardware configuration?
A. New performance baseline
B. Insight Diagnostics report
C. CPU Stress report
D. Memory Validation report
Answer: A

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2013年11月1日星期五

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Exam Code: 1Z0-554
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Application Development Framework 11g Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Your application contains an entity object, OrdersEO.You decide to create an updatable view object
SpecialOrdersVO, to handle orders that contain not-from-stock items.
How will SpecialOrdersVO and OrdersEO interact to retrieve data about special orders?
A.OrdersEO retrieves the data from the database and validates it; SpecialOrdersVO then queries the
entity object's cache
B.SpecialOrdersVO queries the database; the retrieved data is validated in the entity object, and then
saved to the entity object's cache
C.SpecialOrdersVO queries the OrdersEO entity object to retrieve data about special orders; the data is
then saved in the view object's cache
D.SpecialOrdersVO queries the OrdersEO cache; the data is validated by the entity object, and then the
two objects are synchronized with the database
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to define that a panel box titled should display information about the currently selected
customer: currently editing Customer Surname: <Customer s Last Name> < Credit limit> .If the credit
limit is null, then a zero should be displayed.Furthermore, in case the label for the surname field changes,
this string should reference the ADF Business Components control hints for the label.
A.Currently editing Customer Surname: # { bindings.CustLastName.Input Value} # {bindings.
CreditLimit.inputValue}
B.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
{bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {empty bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue ? 0 : bindings.
CreditLimit.InputValue}
C.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
{bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {Null bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue ? 0 :
D.Currently editing # {bindings.CustName.Hints.label}: #
bindings.CustLastName.InputValue} # {if empty bindings.CreditLimit.inputValue
then 0 else bindings.CreditLimit.INputValue}
Answer: B

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NO.3 You select a binding In the page definition file and set the ChangeEventPolicy property to ppr.
What effect does this action have on the way the page is rendered?
A.It allows a component to partially refresh another component whose partialSubmit property is set to
true.
B.When a user selects a new value In a field, the portion of the page where that component resides is
redrawn.
C.It enables you to add a component as a partial target for an event, so that when that event is triggered,
the partial target component is refreshed.
D.Components whose values change as a result of back-end logic are automatically repainted.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which two places do you configure managed beans?
A.In the page definition file
B.In the faces-config.xml file
C.In the adfc-config.xml file
D.In the Property Inspector
E.In the task flow definition files
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Identify two advantages that ADF Model offers the developer.
A.It insulates the developer from needing to know about the specifics of the underlying business services
implementation.
B.It enables the developer to abstract application navigation from the physical pages.
C.It saves time In that it allows the developer to quickly build business services from database tables.
D.It enables the developer to bind UI components directly to tables and columns in the database.
E.It provides the developer with a generalized approach to binding services and UI components.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 For a Customers view object, you have defined a view criteria to show only U.S.customers.On an ADF
Faces page, you already have an ADF Faces table displaying data from the Customers view object.
How would you display a query panel on the page that will allow you to select the view criteria and filter
the existing Customers table on the page.?
A.Drag the view criteria as a query panel.
B.Drag the view criteria to the existing table and select query panel with table.
C.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the ID property of the query panel to reference the
table.
D.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Resultcomponent ID property of the query
component to reference the table.
E.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Model property of the query component to
reference the table binding.
F.Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the value property of the query component to
reference the table binding.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have found a declarative component that you would like to use on one of the pages that you are
designing.
Choose the correct sequence of steps to add the component to the page.
A.Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.Deploy the component's project as an ADF
library JAR file.
B.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
C.Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
D.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
E.Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
Select the ADF library from the Component Palette.
Add the ADF library to the current project.
Select the declarative component and drag it to the page.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An application module is named MyAppModule.No Java component is defined for the module but the
application does define a base class that extends racle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario?
A.Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1.java extends the base class.
B.Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C.No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java component named
MyAppModuleImp1.java does not exist.
D.Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E.The MyAppModule.xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have an ADF Faces page which includes input components for A, B and C.On updating either A or
B, you want C to be refreshed automatically.How could you achieve this?
A.Set the PartialTriggers property on A and B to reference
B.Set the PartialTriggers property on C to reference A and B
C.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true
D.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true, and the PartialTriggers property on C to reference A
and B
E.Set the Autosubmit property on A and B to true and the PartialTriggers property on C to reference C
F.Set the Autosubmit property to true on A, B and C
Answer: E

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NO.10 You are debugging an application module method that seems to be causing an error when the argument
value is anything but "2".How could you most efficiently debug this issue?
A.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint property to break
only for threads named oracie.jbo.Exception.
B.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint pass count
property to 2.
C.Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the breakpoint condition to arg !
= 2.
D.Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and step through the
breakpoint at execution to determine the argument value.
E.Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and set the condition to arg
== 2.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-219
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
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Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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